I looked up my property tax info on the SD Treasury Tax site and found out that I am deliquient on my first payment and owe about $1800. I purchased this condo in late July of 2006 and I remember that the seller said I didn't have to pay property taxes the first year. Is this true? I have also noticed that everyone in my complex are also Past Due for their property taxes too. Is this a problem?
2007-01-27 05:33:00 · 3 answers · asked by larry7crys 2 in Business & Finance ➔ Taxes ➔ United States
The taxes should have been paid at closing if they were due. Contact the county and ask them what the gig is. I'm thinking you need to pay and the sooner the better.
2007-02-03 11:26:08 · answer #1 · answered by Scott K 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
check with the real estate person whom sold you the house or get a copy of payment for that time from the previous owner if you can
2007-02-03 10:53:21 · answer #2 · answered by jerry 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes yhis is a problem .you can get solution for this by visiting the following site.
2007-02-03 01:25:06 · answer #3 · answered by rangaseo 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋