English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I just asked a question on microevolution. Some people seemed to think that no amount of small changes added over time would equal a big change. Please explain before my head explodes from the lack of apparent logic.

2007-01-26 17:09:26 · 14 answers · asked by Mr. NoneofYourbusiness 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Pretty, I just did. Scientists have tested small-scale evolution many times...

2007-01-26 17:18:56 · update #1

14 answers

Listen, here's the answer

Microevolution is obviously real. But "Macroevolution"....boy, tough one. Our lifetime, a blink of an eye to nature, can't have one unemployed fundie observe the entire thing from their trailer so it must be false.

Here's the kicker: Why would God allow viruses and bacteria to "microevolve", but we can't "macroevolve" to keep our species alive?

What a loving guy.

2007-01-26 17:24:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

3

2007-01-26 17:14:34 · answer #2 · answered by FUM 2 · 0 0

3

2007-01-26 17:14:13 · answer #3 · answered by Angel 2 · 0 0

3

2007-01-26 17:13:27 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

change a million a million/3 into the mistaken fraction 4/3, by technique of multiplying the only cases the denominator 3 and then including it to the numerator one. upload 4/3 to 4/3 to get 8/3, also widely used as 2 2/3. 3 is going into 8 2 cases, with a relax of two, for this reason 2 over the denominator 3.

2016-12-03 02:38:02 · answer #5 · answered by boshell 4 · 0 0

yes it equals 3
1 x 1 x 1 = 1
get it?

2007-01-26 17:15:31 · answer #6 · answered by unknown 3 · 1 0

Not sure what you mean. If many small changes take place over time, then the final species (the summation of changes) might look and function completely different than the original species.

2007-01-26 17:15:44 · answer #7 · answered by a sock 3 · 0 0

It depends what it is one of. For example in terms of matter, If it was 1+1+1 particles of matter then it would be 3 , if it was 1+1+1 particles of antimatter then it wold be -3. If it was 1 particle of antimatter + 1 particle of matter + 1 more particle of matter then it would be 1.

2007-01-26 17:22:06 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Its obviously 3!

2007-01-26 17:16:22 · answer #9 · answered by grass_hopper_king 2 · 0 0

You only wish it were that simple! The actual equation is more
properly expressed as Void=Infinity

2007-01-26 17:16:32 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

fedest.com, questions and answers