When a slave owner strikes a male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies immediately, the owner shall be punished. But if the slave survives a day or two, there is no punishment; for the slave is the owner's property. (Exod. 21:20-21)
2007-01-26 15:34:57 · 6 answers · asked by A fan 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Wow
maybe they would if they lived in the times of there Forefathers
as of now, it really holds no bearing on them
2007-01-26 15:46:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Here is Rashi's commentary on the matter (you can skip the scripture if you want, but it is helpful in my personal explanation)
20. And should a man strike his manservant or his maidservant with a rod, and [that one] die under his hand, he shall surely be avenged.
And should a man strike his manservant or his maidservant The text is referring to a Canaanite slave, or perhaps it is referring only to a Hebrew [slave]? To clarify this, the Torah says: “because he is his property” (verse 21). Just as his property is his permanent acquisition, so is the slave [in question] one who is his permanent acquisition. Now, was he [the one who kills his slave] not included in “He who strikes a man and he dies” (above, verse 12) ? This verse was written [lit., came] to exclude him [the owner of the slave] from the general rule [concerning murder], to be judged with the law of “a day or two days” (verse 21), that if he did not die under his hand but lingered an entire twenty-four-hour period, he is exempt. -[From Mechilta]
with a rod The verse refers to [a rod] that has sufficient [weight and strength] to kill [someone]. Or perhaps that is not so, but [the master is liable] even if it [the rod] does not have sufficient [weight and strength] to kill? Therefore, the Torah says concerning an Israelite: “Or if he strikes him with a stone that can be held in the hand, from which he may die” (Num. 35:17). (“Or if he strikes him with a wooden instrument that can be held in the hand, from which he may die” ) (Num. 35:18). -[Mizrachi version] Now could the matter not be understood by a kal vachomer [an inference from a major to a minor case], that if [in the case of] an Israelite [victim], [a case] which is treated more stringently, one is not liable unless he struck him [the victim] with an article that has sufficient [weight and strength] to kill and the blow is on an organ which could cause death, how much more should it be so [in the case of] a slave, [a case] which is treated more leniently? -[From Mechilta]
he shall surely be avenged [with] death by the sword [decapitation], and so does the Torah say: “a sword avenging the vengeance of the covenant” (Lev. 26:25). -[From Mechilta, Sanh. 52b]
21. But if he survives for a day or for two days, he shall not be avenged, because he is his property.
But if he survives for a day or two he shall not be avenged If one day[’s survival] exempts him [from punishment], then would not [survival of] two days be even more obvious? [Why then, is the word ××××× written?] Rather [it must be that we are speaking of] one day which is as two days, and what [kind of day] is that? A full, twenty-four hour period.
he shall not be avenged, because he is his property But if someone else struck him, even if he lingered for twenty-four hours before he died, he [the other person] is liable [to incur the death penalty].
If a man strikes his slave and that slave dies, the man should be punished. If the man strikes the slave and the slave dies, the man should not be punished (here the word punishment means death) because no life was lost: should the master be then put to death for striking a slave that lived? No. You have to understand that punishment in those terms was pretty synonymous with death. The reason a man isn't killed for striking a slave when the slave lives for two days is because it is a much less serious offense than killing the slave, as no life was lost.
2007-01-27 00:27:49 · answer #2 · answered by LadySuri 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
last time i checked, modern jews were against slavery in general.
2007-01-26 23:46:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
I don't think many modern Jews have slaves.
Do you have any?
2007-01-26 23:44:35 · answer #4 · answered by robert p 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Don't YOU agree with it? Don't you think that if someone kills their servant they should be punished?
2007-01-26 23:44:03 · answer #5 · answered by revulayshun 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Leave the past where it belongs. We are of the new covenant in Christ Jesus.
2007-01-26 23:38:47 · answer #6 · answered by Tribble Macher 6 · 3⤊ 2⤋