2007-01-26 12:02:28 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
If the speaker has a speech impediment or the listener has hearing loss, I guess it would seem to be the same
2007-01-26 12:08:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
So it does....I wonder if Guatemalans eat Watermelons...and if they do....where do the guatemalans get the watermelons?
2007-01-26 12:09:50 · answer #2 · answered by steve 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
ah yes and now I have a new term to call the hispanics at work(who are from guatamala) Im just gonna call them watermelons ha
2007-01-26 12:12:05 · answer #3 · answered by Aaron A 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
That's why they call them Chapines (to avoid confusion)
2007-01-26 14:28:58 · answer #4 · answered by Jim G 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yeah, it does. However, water and guate do not exactly rhyme, just only the melon and malan part.
2007-01-26 12:10:37 · answer #5 · answered by Excal 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
I pronounce the "r" a little more. Water melons. So.... nope. :)
2007-01-26 12:16:54 · answer #6 · answered by ? 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yep.
2007-01-26 12:05:35 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
ohh thats a good point lol
2007-01-26 12:09:44 · answer #8 · answered by crystal m 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Hmmm... it sure does. I never thought of it that way.
2007-01-26 12:06:36 · answer #9 · answered by The Zunester 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
only if you mis-pronounce it.
2007-01-26 12:09:56 · answer #10 · answered by T L 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋