2007-01-26 11:23:36 · 5 answers · asked by ,,,,,,, 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
HOW COME IT ONLY MENTIONS A MAN CLEAVING UNTO HIS WIFE?
2007-01-26 11:27:50 · update #1
yes it does. read below from the Book of Romans:
esp verse 26
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=52&chapter=1&version=31
and Ruth and Naomi seen below were a daughter and mother-in-law.
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=8&chapter=1&version=31
2007-01-26 11:36:32 · answer #1 · answered by what's up? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God has 2 uses for sex - Procreation and a Fufilling Marriage, Marriage is tough and god made sex for it to be easier.
Some bible verses that mentioned homosexuality are,
Leveticus 18:22
Romans 1:26-27
There are no specificly homosexual relationships that i can think of but the was a homosexulal city that was destroyed in
Genesis 19
Any use of sex outside of a heterosexual marriage is against God.
2007-01-26 19:56:30 · answer #2 · answered by JCsSake 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Cause the bible supports being cruel to anyone that doesn't believe everything the bible says, including murder, there are no gay relationships mentioned in the bible.
How anyone can think that's ok, I don't know.
2007-01-26 19:31:29 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Same-Sex Relationships in the Bible
The Bible describes three emotionally close relationships between two people of the same gender. They appear to have progressed well beyond a casual friendship:
* Ruth and Naomi
* David and Jonathan
* Daniel and Ashpenaz
Daniel’s relationship appears to have been a committed homosexual partnership; the others may or may not have been sexually active.
There may be as many as three references in the Bible to committed homosexual relationships, none of which was condemned.
2007-01-26 19:31:08 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 3⤊ 3⤋
no cause its wrong
2007-01-26 19:28:15 · answer #5 · answered by screw-over-311 4 · 1⤊ 6⤋