Is "Jesus" a common Hebrew name? Roman? Persian? Egyptian? Why did xtians settle on this moniker? Is it phonetic?
Seriously.
2007-01-26 05:16:13 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
"Jesus" is the Anglicized form of the Latin transliteration of the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew/Aramaic "Yeshua", which means "God saves". A lot of Hebrew names that reference God either start with "Ja/Ya" or end in "el".
We might have known him as "Joshua" except that there is a book and character in the Hebrew Bible already. They didn't want any confusion.
BTW, the title "Christ" is from the Greek translation of the Hebrew word "meshiach" ("messiah") which means "anointed", a term that indicated a divinely-approved king.
2007-01-26 05:35:55 · answer #1 · answered by skepsis 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The name Jesus is an anglicized(German) form of the Latin Iesus, which itself is derived from the Greek name Iesous. Iesous was the Greek transliteration of the Aramaic name Yeshua, which itself was the later Aramaic form of the Hebrew name Yehoshua.
2007-01-26 13:38:58 · answer #2 · answered by gnostic 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is the Greek equivalent of Joshua (Anglicized form of Y'shua). Its meaning is "anointed one."
It is Jewish in origin and was a common name at the time.
Jesus may have been known during His days on Earth as Y'shua Ben Yoseph (Jesus son of Joseph).
2007-01-26 13:24:22 · answer #3 · answered by Bob L 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Actually, that's the Greek pronunciation of the original Hebrew Yeshuah. Sometimes I wonder how He feels about having His Name mispronounced by so many for so long.
2007-01-26 13:26:30 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Gospel According to Saint Matthew
Chapter 2
21 And she shall bring forth a son: and thou shalt call his name JESUS. For he shall save his people from their sins. 22 Now all this was done that it might be fulfilled which the Lord spoke by the prophet, saying: 23 Behold a virgin shall be with child, and bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. 24 And Joseph rising up from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord had commanded him, and took unto him his wife. 25 And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
Latin Vulgate
Douay-Rheims Bible
2007-01-26 13:38:53 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's a hebrew name, a common derivitive of another(forget the other off the top of my head).
As a confirmed xxtheis or an xostic, I think it's a good thing to respect each others beliefs, even if we dont accept them.
2007-01-26 13:23:09 · answer #6 · answered by Pirate AM™ 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It's the Latin form of the Greek form of an Aramaic name which means "God saves" (Yahshua). A fairly common name in first century Palestine.
2007-01-26 13:25:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is no J in Hebrew. The closest relation might have been Yehoshua (Joshua). The mistranslation is in the Greek ieosous, which means "sky god".
2007-01-26 13:22:20 · answer #8 · answered by Kallan 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Scripture says that when the angel appeared unto mary to explain to her what she was about to endure and why she had been chosen, one of the last things the angel told her was that she was to NAME Him Jesus which interpreted is Immanuel, GOD WITH US! Pretty neat, I think.
2007-01-26 16:47:26 · answer #9 · answered by bigvol662004 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
An angel came to one of the parents of Jesus and he told them to name Him "JESUS", or Yeshua (Hebrew).
2007-01-26 13:24:07 · answer #10 · answered by unknown 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋