Dear kj7,
If you will look up the word "baptism" in a Greek lexicon, you will find that it means "washing". Most of Christianity have misunderstood baptism, believing that it was something spiritual that ensures a person entrance into kingdom of heaven. On the contrary, baptsim is a sign or symbol emphasizing that in order to go to heaven we have to have our sins washed away. In the Old Testament, circumscision was the sign or symbol emphasizing that our sins had to be "cut off". But girls were not circumsized, so were they banished from entering God's heaven? No! Salvation or being saved from our sins, is a work that only God can do! He utilizes His word, the Bible, to do this awesome miracle. The Bible tells us in Romans 10:17, "So then, faith cometh by hearing and hearing by the word of God." FAITH is a synonym for Christ (Rev 19:11). So then, Christ cometh by hearing and hearing by the word of God. The water Christ speaks of in the N.T. is the Gospel (see Ephesians 5:26).
2007-01-25 06:06:15
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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I don't think there is scriptural or historical evidence that the Jews would automatically think a new ordinance should be carried out exactly like a previous one. There are other Jewish ordinances such as the Bar/Bat Mitzvah which took place at age 13. So Paul would not need to correct it if there was no misunderstanding. We do see other cases where Paul corrected such as the case where followers were baptized and Paul asked them if they received the Holy Ghost and they didn't have a clue what he was talking about. He asked what they were baptized into and they said John's baptism so Paul corrected this and they were baptized in Jesus name and received the gift of the Holy Ghost by laying on of hands.
2007-01-25 13:11:57
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answer #2
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answered by Someone who cares 7
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In fact, Paul used the example of circumcision as a figure for baptism. He said that baptism in the New Covenant replaces circumcision under the Old Covenant. Circumcision was administered on the 8th day after birth. This is why there was a debate about infant baptism in the early Church - whether it should be administered immediately after birth, or on the 8th day. But there was never any disagreement about the fact that it should be administered. Such disagreements stem from modern misinterpretations of the Bible, which stem from the unbiblical tradition of sola scriptura. As soon as you try to replace the authority of God's Church with a book compiled by that same Church, and as soon as you make yourself the only interpreter of that book, you already have two strikes against you as far as knowing the truth.
The Bible repeatedly describes whole families being baptized together. Never does it say "all the adults of the family", or "the whole family except small children". It couldn't say that, for that would be against the teaching and practice of the early Church. In one place Jesus tells no-one can enter the kingdom without being reborn through the waters of baptism. In another place He tells us that a group of little children are in possession of the kingdom. So obviously these little children were already baptized. As one would expect since that has been the practice of the Christian Church since the beginning.
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2007-01-25 13:07:39
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answer #3
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answered by PaulCyp 7
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The first part of your question is very misinterpreted by many Christians and Pastors alike,
The water baptism done by John the Baptist was for repentance. This is very often confused with the believers baptism.
Jesus Christ said in his own words, that ye must be born twice. Once of the water ( this would be your first birth of a woman) then be born again of the holy spirit.
Now , how are we born again of the holy spirit. Does it have to be of water? Jesus Christ does not state that this second birth must be by water. We as Christians do assume this to be fact, but again, the bible does not state that water must be present at the second birth.
Now, when Apollos was brought to believing by Pricilla and Aquila, they did not baptize him in the holy spirit, but sent him out to meet up with Paul and Peter.
It was after he met up with the Apostles, that he was baptized in the holy spirit.(the bible does not state how this was done, no water nor ceremony was described)
As for myself, my own believers baptism was done by total immersion and it was an awesome experience. the Holy Spirtit was there and my fear of water was alleviated for that brief time. I felt new and fresh and wanted the feeling to stay forever.
So, I could never state that water is not needed, but as to if it is an essencial ingredient in the believers baptism, the bible just does not state one way or the other.
I also have questioned the entire households being baptised once the head of the household became a believer. This is still an open ended question with me. As with most unanswered questions, I will wait upon the Lord and when it is time, I will receive the knowledge and understanding.
2007-01-25 13:26:32
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answer #4
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answered by cindy 6
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If you are referring to Luke 24:47. There are two is a different baptisms. Paul just wasn't just speaking about baptism of water immersion. But also asking the jews and gentiles to be praying for the baptism of the Holy Spirit. Not neessarily at the time of baptism. You receive the Holy Spirit. As far as children goes. Children don't understand the reason why they are being baptise. Children has be the age of countablilty.Peter replied, "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit, for the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call. Acts 2:38-39
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…and repentance and forgiveness of sins will be preached in his name to all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
2007-01-25 15:43:03
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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St. Paul was also very big on salvation without works, and infant baptism, as practiced in the Catholic Church, is the ultimate example of salvation with no works at all.
The church freely provides all that's necessary, including the faith, simply because God desires all men to be saved.
Adult baptism, unless due to conversion, is a risky strategy, a false tradition, and is merely the confused invention of late day protestants.
2007-01-26 04:59:09
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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To a Jew, circumcision is for infants (or adult converts); however, baptism (mikveh) is for adults EXCLUSIVELY. The purpose of a mikveh is to purify following some sort of ritual defilement (see Leviticus). So when Paul spoke to Jews and told them they must believe in Jesus Christ as Messiah, repent from their sins, and have a mikveh bath, they understood him perfectly to mean this: "you've lived a sinful life. Repent of your sin and be washed clean of it."
Only a person of some maturity can believe the gospel and repent; an infant is completely unable to do this. Scriptural sources that prove belief and repentance are required are numerous. However, here are a few: Mark 1:15, Mark 6:12, Acts 3:19 and Acts 8:22.
2007-01-25 13:07:41
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answer #7
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answered by Suzanne: YPA 7
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Exactly.
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Suzanne wrote, "To a Jew, circumcision is for infants (or adult converts); however, baptism (mikveh) is for adults EXCLUSIVELY."
This is untrue. Judaism accepts infant and child converts, and they undergo immersion in the mikvah. This supports New Covenant infant baptism!
http://www.convert.org/infant.htm
If the page won't load, Google's cached copy can be found here:
http://72.14.253.104/search?q=cache:eh07PRhl0GwJ:www.convert.org/infant.htm
See also the end of http://www.jewfaq.org/birth.htm
and http://www.schechter.edu/askrabbi/conversion_baby.htm
2007-01-25 12:57:09
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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He would only correct them if they misunderstood it and baptized babies.
Babies don't sin. They don't need to be baptized.
The examples we have are of adults being baptized.
2007-01-25 13:06:56
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answer #9
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answered by Contemplative Chanteuse IDK TIRH 7
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