"Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh...." (Romans 1:3)
2007-01-25 02:46:59 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Ok, why does it say he was not born of a virgin...
2007-01-25 02:54:41 · update #1
Because "the seed" means sperm. And according to the flesh means "sex"
2007-01-25 02:58:08 · update #2
I don't get where you are coming from here. That verse says nothing that would contradict the fact that Mary was a virgin at the time Christ was born. If you are speaking about being descended from David.......Mary was a descendant of David the same as Joseph. People did not marry outside their tribe. Levites married Levites, Danites married Danites, Judahites married Judahites, etc.
2007-01-25 02:54:49 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
By the grace of God Mary was born without sin in the womb of her MotherAnne,this is the Immaculate Conception.
Jesus is God and could never sin so He was not born immaculate as Mary was,as far as the term seed goes in relation to Jesus this actually means nothing more than His lineage that descends from David.
2007-01-25 11:07:24 · answer #2 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
First, the immaculate conception has nothing whatsoever to do with the birth of Christ.
Second, Mary was descended from David, as was Joseph. Jesus was legally a descendent of David through Joseph, and physically a descendent of David through Mary.
BTW - the word 'seed' (sperma) was frequently used in reference to legal descent, regardless of biological ancestry.
2007-01-25 10:58:19 · answer #3 · answered by NONAME 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The term "immaculate conception" was coined by Catholics in reference to Mary's conception. They believe she was born without original sin. The seed of David refers to Jesus Jewish lineage because he came down through the line of David.
2007-01-25 10:53:17 · answer #4 · answered by zomal44 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Immacualte Conception has nothing to do with Jesus. It is the doctrine of the sinless nature of the Blessed Virgin.
However, this was Catholic doctrine. It is not a Bible teaching.
2007-01-25 11:03:37 · answer #5 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because Mary was a direct descendant of David, therefore Jesus was "from the seed of David". It does not say that He was not immacualtely conceived.
2007-01-25 10:56:11 · answer #6 · answered by shojo 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Immacualte Conception has nothing to do with Jesus. It is the doctrine of the sinless nature of the Blessed Virgin.
2007-01-25 10:53:26 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Oh, please, you can do better than that. The seed of David is the lineage of David. What do you stand to gain by trying discredit Jesus? I know what you stand to lose, just don't see what you think you gain.
2007-01-25 10:54:58 · answer #8 · answered by cmw 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Immaculate Conception was not the conception of Jesus in Mary's womb.
It was the conception of Mary in her mother's womb.
.
2007-01-25 10:52:18 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 2⤋
Romans is not from the Gospels ... paul never even saw Jesus How can you tae his testimony???
2007-01-25 10:52:56 · answer #10 · answered by Jessi 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋