I was told that 48% of homosexual men have HIV. I think that this is rather high and probably an exaggeration. But others in the room all agreed. Apparently it was heard on some news broadcast (which really does not mean a whole lot to me). Does anyone have any stats on this?
2007-01-24 19:41:35 · 4 answers · asked by dancingdilemma 2 in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ Infectious Diseases
around 55%
2007-01-24 19:46:42 · answer #1 · answered by Brunette Diamond 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
That's definitely too high. I think the confusion comes from the fact that homosexual males, as a risk group, make up about that percentage of the AIDS cases among the male population, which is not the same thing at all.
Kind of like 65% of female AIDS cases are contracted through heterosexual contact does not mean 65% of heterosexual women have AIDS.
2007-01-24 19:48:46 · answer #2 · answered by Emmy 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I dont think the % is that high. Now the % of risk to ever have HIV is definitely higher then 48%.
2007-01-24 19:47:45 · answer #3 · answered by BK thang 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I was told 50% by someone whose knowledge and opinions I trust.I do not think that you are far from wrong.
2007-01-24 19:51:06 · answer #4 · answered by nicko 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋