Did you know that before that there was ordered 50 Books to be made for the churches because there were so many written scrolls that it was decided that they would go through them,there are many and that they would choose the ones they liked best and put the writings together so it would be easier to teach.There weren`t any other books for the layman to read and then under King James orders again there were changes made,there were some of these writings left out, and then the Bible was produced so that all might be able to read the word that before they only heard in the churches.
2007-01-24 16:19:47
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
1⤋
Wrong on so many levels...starting with the date. The KJV was first issued in 1611.
King James commissioned a Bible in English for the common man to read, minus commentary in the margins that had been a source of religious arguments and fighting.
"Although it is often referred to as the King James Version, the only active part King James took in the translation was lifting the criminal (death) penalty attached to its translation and setting very reasonable guidelines for the translation process (such as prohibiting partisan scholarship and footnotes.)
BTW, did you know the world was supposed to end in 1975? It didn't. And when it didn't many people left the JWs.
And for everyone that thinks the Bible has been "edited and re-edited", we know from the Dead Sea Scrolls the OT manuscripts have remained unchanged for thousands of years. We have fragments of Matthew dating from 50 A.D. that show it has remained unchanged,
What I always do now when someone says the Bible has been changed is, I ask them to cite a few examples. Then you get the blank stare, and they change the subject.
2007-01-25 14:18:41
·
answer #2
·
answered by The Notorious Doctor Zoom Zoom 6
·
1⤊
0⤋
Lots more was omitted or subtracted when the rabbi's set up the OT in 100 ad (circa) and then later the NT. Most translations are still shuffling the wording around. We are still trying to find an interpretation for some of the words. The Bible is a wonder of not only faith but also "assembly."
2007-01-24 15:12:10
·
answer #3
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
2⤋
I go by the genealogy of Jesus and the bible does not miss a thing.
Noah is son #10, Abraham is son #20 Matt.1:1-17; David is son #34 Ruth 4:18-22; 1Chr.3:1-17; Jehoicahin #48 captive in Babylon Empire #3 ends kings, Jesus son #62 born in Roman Empire #6.
2007-01-24 14:56:14
·
answer #4
·
answered by jeni 7
·
0⤊
1⤋
Yeah
And prior to that in 330 AD Constantine also had a group of "Orthodox" (Catholic) Priests do the same thing.
And prior to that in 1,000 BC or so the Pharsees also did it with the Old Testiment refusing to include the verbal stories passed down.
Some Hebrew texts have more verses for Genesis and Exodus than the Christian ones.
2007-01-24 15:03:45
·
answer #5
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
It was also written in the English literary style of prose, which is why it was so popular in the 1800 and 1900s. No, it was not a literal translation but many Bibles are more historically accurate.
2007-01-24 15:03:30
·
answer #6
·
answered by Turnhog 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
Yes I knew that is why I seldom use that translation, since in that version has subtracted not only God's name but also some wordings were changed around to suit some doctrines which are not Biblical.
2007-01-24 15:09:34
·
answer #7
·
answered by I speak Truth 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
Since the KJV came out, there has been a wealth of discoveries in language and ancient scrolls that make it outmoded.
However it is most popular with right-wing fundamentalist Ted Haggard Christians who dont' care about accuracy anyway
2007-01-24 14:59:29
·
answer #8
·
answered by morahastits 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
Yes and there are other versions based on the original Greek and Hebrew like the New International Version.
2007-01-24 14:55:02
·
answer #9
·
answered by Jan P 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
Not true ...it was translated under King James orders.
2007-01-24 14:53:39
·
answer #10
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
1⤋