The Immaculate Mis conception of Mary. The fable?

Question

Non-Catholics often do not understand Rome's doctrine of the Immaculate Conception. They take the term to apply to the conception of Jesus, wherein the designation is appropriate; Jesus was immaculately conceived (Luke 1:28-35). But the Catholic doctrine refers, not to Jesus, but to Mary herself. Here is a comparison of Rome and the Bible on this subject.

What Rome say

(Ref C1) "The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin." [A: Page 124, #491.]


(Ref C2) "The only person preserved from original sin was the Blessed Virgin Mary, the Mother of our Lord Jesus Christ." [D: Page 70, #48]


So does this agree with the bible?
more to come

What the bible and God declare.

(Ref. D1) For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; (Ro 3:23)
(Ref. D2) Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: (Ro 5:12)

(Ref. D3) For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. (1 Cor 15:22)

(Ref. D4) As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: (Ro 3:10)

(Ref. D5) "Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. (Matthew 1: 24-25)

(Ref D6) "Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas? And his sisters, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these things?" (Matt 13:54-56)

(Ref D6) "Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas? And his sisters, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these things?" (Matt 13:54-56)

(Ref. D7) "Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him." (Mark 6:3)

So it can only be held that the catholic popes and priest have lied to the masses for 2000 years and keep doing so. So are the followers of christ to follow liers or the son of God in whom there is no untruths?

Answer 1

Just one of the many reasons I left the Catholic Church.

May God Bless you.

Answer 2

The doctrine developed out of a mindset that needed to separate the transcendent holiness of God from the depraved corruption of fleshly life. The Immaculate Conception is a logical construction developing out of a sequence of preceding theological precepts.

The original Jesus was portrayed as a human who was allowed to assume divine qualities, probably about the time of his baptism. But the doctrine of the Atonement demanded a stronger pedigree. Jesus had to be divine from the beginning. But how far back do you go? The safest solution is to make Jesus eternal God. To prevent an outbreak of polytheism, the doctrine of the Trinity was developed: three persons, ONE God.

Then there is the problem of getting God into the world. The doctrine of Original Sin tainted everything human with anti-God germs. Therefore, the Incarnation of God, God's entry into the physical world, had to be qualified. The solution was to eliminate the human contribution. Hence, the Virgin Birth. (The ancients believed that humans grew from the male "seed" planted in the womb. No one knew anything about human "eggs".)

But Christ's body would still have developed in a filthy container. So something had to be done about Mary. That solution was the Immaculate Conception. For some unexplained reason, Mary's conception was missing one normally unavoidable quality, the taint of Adam's Sin. The profound effect of this quiet miracle was a woman of virtue (presumably) and one naturally inclined to embrace the will of God, no matter how unusual it might appear.

None of this is IN the Gospels. The Gospel writers were not concerned about any of these technical theological details. But given enough time, someone would be, and a painstaking series of if-then arguments would lead the believer to something like this. The analysis takes some of the fun out of the story but there are devout people who insist on nailing all the doctrinal corners down tight.

Answer 3

No, the Bible doesn't agree. I think it's odd really... this would take away from Jesus being born of a virgin. It would also mean that Mary is a Child of God in the exact same sense that Jesus is. Nowhere does the Bible back up the idea that Mary was preserved from original sin. Actually, you won't find the term "original sin"... nor will you find Jesus ever speaking about it.

This is no different than the Church claiming that Mary Magdalen was a whore (which is not backed up in the Bible either).

Answer 4

Mary WAS a virgin. But, Mary was not sinless. Jesus was the only person that was ever born without a sin nature. That is because He was born of a virgin, and was concieved by the Holy Spirit, so that He could be the Savior of this world. It says no where in the bible that Mary was sinless. As a matter of fact, it says quite the contrary.

Answer 5

Also bible says Jesus was her first born son in the greek first born is Protokon and ONLY born son in the greek is Monogene. The greek language unlike English is very specific. Look how many words they had for love or Father.
Mary also said she was in need of a savior. From what if she never sinned? Oh Mary was a virgin but she didn't say one forever. That's silly to think Joseph was married to her and they didn't have sex AFTER Jesus was born.
OH and I love Father K.....he rocks.
The RCC has lie upon another upon another...sad. We have many former RC's in my non denom church. They read the bible.

Answer 6

I'm not quite seeing where the question is here.

One thing I can add to this discussion is that part of the reasoning behind this doctrine is to help strengthen the theology of Jesus' divinity. Jesus was 100% human and yet still 100% God. But if sin and original sin was, as believed by Jews at the time, was passed to the child from the parents, Jesus would have been "infected" by original sin from his mother Mary. It's illogical for God to be touched by original sin. The solution that the Vatican theologians came up with was to make Mary free of original sin by the grace of God so that Jesus would not be touched by it.

Yes, it is a man-made teaching. But if we take a serious look at our "beliefs," we'll discover that many of them are the result of human intellect. So dismissing a teaching simply due to the fact that it is not 100% rooted in the bible is a bit silly. In my opinion, at least.

Answer 7

The concept of Mary as a virgin was not added to the bible until 1851. A bit after the fact. Immaculate conception is any ones guess.

Answer 8

certain, the stainless theory is the dogma that Catholics trust, which states that Mary become born without unique sin, so she'd be able to provide beginning to Jesus without infecting Him with unique sin... i have heard this earlier. human beings were puzzling me by technique of declaring that the stainless theory become speaking about Jesus, yet I regarded into the challenge and placed it become pertaining to Mary.

Answer 9

Catholics believe both were immaculately conceived
look out I think I heard Pastor Billy getting started up

Answer 10

I am a Roman Catholic, but I don't buy into 100% of the dogma.

This is one of the things I have a problem with, but it has no impact on my faith.