Ok, I'm going to explain this as simple as I can. About 1 year ago my husband had to pay off a debt that his ex wife made after the divorce. The debt came back onto his property, and he had to pay it to clear the property. Now the debt was not his in any way, his name was not asscoiated with this in any way shape or form.
He was wondering, can he claim this $17,000 as a loss to him? He has documentation showing that he had paid the debt, lawyer fees and everything. Can anyone shine some light on this?
2007-01-23
12:43:32
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5 answers
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asked by
charliesangel
2
in
Business & Finance
➔ Taxes
➔ United States