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Lev 18:22 Don't have sex with a man as one does with a woman. That is abhorrent.

2007-01-23 00:51:57 · 21 answers · asked by insane2mad 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

21 answers

The two are mutually exclusive. You cannot be one and the other at the same time. When you consider the text, it's pretty explicit, DO NOT do this. To those naysayers who would have you believe that the Old Testament 'does not apply', consider that Jesus himself said, 'I come NOT to abolish the law (of Moses, ie. Levitical law) but rather to fulfill it'. He wasn't changing the rules, but rather completing and satisfying it by being holy the way God expected men to do. Since we could not, Jesus did and thus his sacrifice was perfect before God. The problem with the whole 'free love' movement is that they contradict themselves at a very basic level: they state either, 'They are born this way or that way' OR 'They choose to be this way or that,' but what they neglect to answer then is this: If homosexuality is 'coded in the genes', then it can be 'turned off' genetically, cured as it were, like a disease. The moment you make this argument however, the movement's proponents back-pedal and state, 'No, well, we CHOOSE to be like this.' In that case, then, it is a question of immoral choice, sin, not physiology. Homosexuality is a choice of immorality, not preference. Otherwise, one could make the argument that pedophilia, necrophilia, and bestiality is a 'preference.' Consider this, pray and allow God to minister, which means Listen...

2007-01-23 01:12:19 · answer #1 · answered by author_observer 4 · 1 0

There are differences in Levitcal and Nazarite Law and then the common law of the people of Moses! See Biblical Customs and Tradiitions by Barbour Press.

The Hebrew text calls slaves servants. A slave was paid while employed See Colossians 4. and employers were to treat them with respect and pay a fair wage. Often times were adopted into families and was even practiced by the Romans. A slave could be free after seven years. The slavery we think of is the same as the godless Pharoah.

It is not possible for a Christian to be a Practicing Homosexual and is diametrically opposed to sound doctrine!

Romans 1, 2nd Kings 23:7, Revelation 22 speak to the issue of Homosexuality not only as adultery or fornication, but as a sacrament of the Caananites! This is what Romans one means> they worshipped everything except God. That is why God views it so harshly and in Revelation 13, 2nd Peter 3..will not repent and will be part of the anti Christ false church and false Messiah. Daniel 11: 27-32... foretold of a man coming in End Times and Latter day the dispensation of the church that would have no desire of women and worship a different God...

2007-01-23 09:24:13 · answer #2 · answered by Sassy 3 · 0 0

This has always been a controversial topic- no matter what you believe. I am a Christian and follow the word of God. Saying that, I must keep in mind that the Bible also states for us not to judge anyone. We are to leave these things to Him.

I do agree that the Bible states that homosexuality is an abomination. Hence, Sodom and Gomorrah (sp?). Which if you really think about it, it makes sense. The Creator made a woman and a man. (I know we have all heard that argument) If I were to have posed this question on homosexuality, I would have used a more clear cut verse to use.

As far as the "following a Jewish Law" comment, Jesus was a Jewish Rabbi. The term Christianity came into play later on in years. Back then you were either Jewish or Gentile. The Gentile's used the term to allow others to know what they believed. Christians and the Jews are the same in numerous ways. The foundation is the same, but the practice is different. Of course the Gentiles wouldn't follow the human laws of the Jews since this was more based on culture.

Keep in mind though, that the Jewish people don't accept The New Testament as "God's Law" But that's another topic all together.

2007-01-23 09:17:37 · answer #3 · answered by SARA P 2 · 0 1

you cant. for all those homosexuals out there that will and have answered your ? with "its an old law" or what ever other reason they might give for denying the voice of God and chosing their own path. humans have always comitted sins and then justified them to themselves. why do you think the world is in the shape its in today. you cannot follow your own heart. your passions are from the liar himself and from your own failure of perfection. homosexual acts are what Lev 18 is talking about. and to all the hypocrits out there, the great mother church the catholic church teaches that very same doctrine. homosexual orientation is not a sin, but homosexual acts are a sin. if you are a homosexual you need to know that prayer and abstainence are the only ways for you to make it during you passage here. remember that torment on earth is but for a brief moment but eternal bliss in God is forever

2007-01-23 09:40:41 · answer #4 · answered by maximus 2 · 0 0

Here are some more questions from Leviticus:

Lev. 25:44 states that I may indeed possess slaves, both male and female, provided they are purchased from neighboring nations. A friend of mine claims that this applies to Mexicans, but not Canadians. Can you clarify? Why can't I own Canadians?

My uncle has a farm. He violates Lev 19:19 by planting two different crops in the same field, as does his wife by wearing garments made of two different kinds of thread (cotton/polyester blend). He also tends to curse and blaspheme a lot. Is it really necessary that we go to all the trouble of getting the whole town together to stone them? (Lev 24:10-16) Couldn't we just burn them to death at a private family affair like we do with people who sleep with their in-laws? (Lev. 20:14)


I know that I am allowed no contact with a woman while she is in her period of menstrual uncleanliness (Lev 15:19-24). The problem is, how do I tell? I have tried asking, but most women take offense.

2007-01-23 09:04:19 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

in the new testament it states that the law was not made for a righteous man. Jesus fulfilled the law, meaning it is done away with. A Christian is one who has confessed with their mouth that Jesus is Lord and believes in their heart, belly, that God raised him from the dead. IF we continue in his word. We are to practice moderation in eating and drinking. How many obese "Christians" do you know? Don't look at the sin of others, let God deal with your own sin to set you free. Homosexuality is a depravity of our minds that God gives us over to. So, someone who is homosexual can become a Christian and God will deal with the immorality of their behavior. God cannot cleanse all sin from our life all at once. We would explode! It must come out little at a time, as God convicts our hearts. I hope this cleared things up a bit.

2007-01-23 09:10:53 · answer #6 · answered by gigglings 7 · 1 1

The other day, a lady on here asked why it was okay to eat meat when in Leviticus, it clearly said not to. She was answered that the old testament was the old laws and the new testament the new laws. Jesus changed the rules. Nearly all the other Christians replying to that question agreed. That rule was old news. Why was that the answer for eating meat but it's not the answer for being homosexual? Selective application of interpretation perhaps?

2007-01-23 08:57:31 · answer #7 · answered by glitterkittyy 7 · 5 1

Is that really what Leviticus 18:22 says? Is that your interpretation? What does an Old Testament chaptre have to do with Christianity? Leviticus is Jewish "law" not Christian.

2007-01-23 08:56:21 · answer #8 · answered by fangtaiyang 7 · 3 1

I suggest you concentrate on what Jesus taught unless you are following all of Lev's laws. My guess is, you aren't.

2007-01-23 08:56:30 · answer #9 · answered by tjnstlouismo 7 · 5 0

I figured somebody would say the "old laws" are not to be followed anymore. What a cop-out. What do you do with the statement in the New Testament that homosexuals won't inherit eternal life.

2007-01-23 09:00:11 · answer #10 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 2 3

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