2007-01-22 18:38:25 · 6 answers · asked by shepherdsoutreachministry 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
No, I cannot find that phrase.
When the believers at Penecost spoke in tongues, they were not speaking jibberish. They were speaking in other recognizable languages that the people understood.
"Now there were staying in Jerusalem God-fearing Jews from every nation under heaven. When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard them speaking in his own language. Utterly amazed, they asked: 'Are not all these men who are speaking Galileans? Then how is it that each of us hears them in his own native language?'" -Acts 2:5-8
Just because someone does not speak in tongues does not mean they do not have the Holy Spirit.
2007-01-22 18:53:32 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
No. This phrase is used by (Christian) churches that place an emphasis on the "Baptism in the Holy Spirit," beleived to be a fuller experience of the Holy Spirit subsequent and apart from conversion (being born again). The "sign" they say that a person has received the "Baptism in the Holy Spirit" is glossalalia - speaking in tongues. For example, the Constitution of the Assemblies of God states, “The Baptism of believers in the Holy Ghost is witnessed by the initial physical sign of speaking with other tongues as the Spirit of God gives them utterance.”
2007-01-23 03:26:40 · answer #2 · answered by Phoebhart 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not the phrase - but every time the baptism of the Holy Spirit is described it is present in the description.
Even after Pentecost as seen here...
Acts 10:46 (KJV)
For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,
Acts 19:6 (KJV)
And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
there's more if interested email me
2007-01-23 02:46:13 · answer #3 · answered by Tony S 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First, there is no evidence. We have Luke in Acts and Paul in Corinthians telling us what they "saw". Seeing in not evidence. You either believe what you read by Luke and Paul or you don't. Applying the scientific method (evidence) to a belief merges two belief systems: Science and Revelation. We can easily observe science but we can only believe or not believe revelation.
Here are the bible verses: Acts 2:1-18,33;10:46;19:6; 1 Corinthians 12:10,28,30;13:8;14:2-19,21-28,39.
2007-01-23 02:52:09 · answer #4 · answered by J. 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is not in the King James Version.
2007-01-23 02:42:42 · answer #5 · answered by Arthur 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No it is not, though there are some who may wish it was.
2007-01-23 02:48:07 · answer #6 · answered by lindakflowers 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋