She got a DUI and isn't suppose to drink for 90 days. Supposedly if she leaves town and is randomly selected, she has to send her urine overnight. Also supposedly the anaylysis can tell if you have been drinking in the last 48 hours? Is that true? And why could't she just pee prior to drinking and send that sample if she is selected while out of town? We have a big annual trip in the mountains with a bunch of friends and I don't want this to be a drag. Thanks.
2007-01-22
14:51:50
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3 answers
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asked by
milehighhoosier
2
in
Health
➔ Diseases & Conditions
➔ Other - Diseases
If she leaves to go on vacation and she is called for a random sample, she has to send a urine sample overnight within 24 hours. Why can't she make a clean sample before she starts drinking and have that just in case. Can a test tell if it is a day or two old?
2007-01-22
16:42:59 ·
update #1