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in genesis 34:1 it says:

God said to jacob, "Arise,go up to Bethel, and settle there. Make an alter there to the God who appeared to you when you fled from your brother Esau."

here it is. in the christian bible the chosen one of 'God', Jacob, worshping two gods.
I repeat there are TWO different gods mentioned in the bible.
i know there are other places in the bible that mention this. and what i want to know is:
what do christians think about this?
why does it go unquestioned?
why has it not been removed if you are so 'one god' oriented
and what excuse is given to those who do question it.
the person who answers all of my questions will get 10 points and will broaden an agnostic's mind to further inner christian workings.
please i am only curious
a happy january to you all

2007-01-22 14:32:10 · 19 answers · asked by unknown 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

on time sup...
dude the question is about genesis 34 i am asking about that i will ask about the buddhist texts in due time but i find less fault in them than in genesis

2007-01-22 14:38:17 · update #1

god is clearly NOT refering to himself! make an alter to THE GOD why not say "me" or "your lord" and why wasn't it changed to something more clear?

2007-01-22 14:39:59 · update #2

ohh sorry!!!!!!!!!! i meant genesis 35!!!!!!! genesis 35:1 SORRY!!!!

2007-01-22 14:42:11 · update #3

you all seem to be under the impression that this is the literaly wrod of god. well it is not it was compiled by moses after he led the hebrew out of egypt not god. dog did not write in teh third person moses did

2007-01-22 14:45:58 · update #4

brother michiel **
have you ever stopped to consider that one god told jacob to worship another. and THEN jacob told everyone to stop worshiping their idols. but still why was this not taken out? it is very confusing

2007-01-22 14:50:29 · update #5

19 answers

Genesis 35, not 34.

God wanted to make sure Jacob remember it was him God Almighty show up in his dream (Genesis 28:13).
Jacob told his family to get rid of the other false gods and
worship the God of Abraham. After Jacob built an altar...
God changed his name from Jacob to Israel.

I think this is a good scripture.
Unquestioned? You asked the question and I am answering your question.
Why should it be removed? You just don't understand the Bible.
I just gave you the answer.
I don't want your dinky little 10 points. If you don't wanna
believe in God then don't... nobody is forcing you.
Whatever.

2007-01-22 15:09:29 · answer #1 · answered by MFD 4 · 2 1

Wrong. Genesis 34:1 says, "Now Dinah, the daughter Leah had borne to jacob went out to visit the women of the land." I'm not sure what bible you're reading.

Am I the only one (including the asker) who looked up the reference? I read all of 33 and 34 and this quote is nowhere to be found. There is the building of an altar, but Jacob does this on his own, with no command from the LORD, to find favor with God.

Edit: I just read 35:1, which seems to be the reference you were looking for. The NIV says, "Then God said to Jacob, 'Go up to bethel and settle there, and build an altar there to God...'"

This translation makes it even clearer that God was referring to himself in the third person. You're on very shaky ground if you're trying to use this verse alone to say that there is more than one god.

2007-01-22 22:40:00 · answer #2 · answered by go2bermuda 4 · 2 0

Because God Almighty was the God who appeared before him when he fled.God says he is God Almighty in Genesis 35:11 He was talking about him self.The God ,is God.Maybe the answer to your question is simply that God wanted him to recognized that He is the true God.By putting the statement the way he did was to make sure that Jacob knew without any doubt that there is One true God.Obviously Jacob did believe this and ordered all strange gods to be put away that all could be clean.

2007-01-22 23:43:48 · answer #3 · answered by greenstateresearcher 5 · 2 0

Actually ,the chapter you're talking about is Chapter 35 in Genesis. Chapter 34 talks about Dinah who wanted to see what wordily women were doing and got herself in trouble. Its a good chapter to read because while its commendable that her brothers wanted to defend her honor, they should have let God do the avenging. But back to your question, if you notice in Chapter 35 :2 Jacob says to put away your false idols. There is only one God and everyone else that that was worshiped in the Bible, save Jesus, is a false idol. Too often, God's anointed ones turned away from Him and worshiped false idols, Solomon did it, and he was the smartest man that ever lived and had God's grace on him.

2007-01-22 22:43:11 · answer #4 · answered by the pink baker 6 · 2 0

In my Bible it's chapter 35 - but whatever. Point being - all throughout the Bible, God doesn't directly speak to humans. He used his angels to deliver the messages. I think there's only 3 instances where God himself directly speaks from heaven. Those are:
1. At Jesus baptism - a voice from heaven said "this is my son...."(Luke 3:22,23)
2. At Jesus' transfiguration - voice from heaven said pretty much the same thing. (Matthew 17:5)
3. Shortly before Jesus’ last Passover, when, responding to Jesus’ request that God glorify his name, a voice from heaven said: “I both glorified it and will glorify it again."(John 12:28,29)

So that being said - it wasn't God directly speaking in Genesis chapter 35. It was more like - God told his angel to tell Jacob to make an alter to God.
I don't think of it as a missprint. The Bible speaks of Jesus being God's "word" - or used to pass messages to humans. I'm sure God has plenty of angels that can help him out. It's not unquestioned - at least not by me. I wouldn't want anyone adding or removing parts of my Bible.

2007-01-22 23:00:14 · answer #5 · answered by CHRISTINA 4 · 2 0

Gen 34:1 And Dinah, the daughter of Leah, whom she bore to Jacob, went out to see the daughters of the land.

How can we take your question seriously when you can't even get the chapter and verse right?

Gen 35:2 And Jacob said to his house, and to all those with him, Put away the strange gods in your midst, and purify yourselves, and change your clothing.
Gen 35:3 And let us rise up and go up to Bethel. And I will make an altar there to God, who answered me in the day of my distress. And He was with me in the way in which I went.
Gen 35:4 And they gave all the strange gods in their hand to Jacob, and the earrings which were in their ears. And Jacob hid them under the oak which was near Shechem.

No where does it say Jacob or Israel as he was renamed, worshiped any God but the one true God. He told them to get rid of the false idols, and they did so. If you could provide a verse where it states that Jacob or any other patriarch worshiped more than one God, please provide it.

2007-01-22 22:46:24 · answer #6 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 2 0

That doesn't indicate anything about two Gods to me. God often refers to Himself in the third person, if you will. He doesn't always say, "I."

Keep reading the scripture and you'll see He does that a lot.

God refers to Himself with names/titles/descriptions that are relevant to the situation or convey the essence of His being.

For example, when God called Moses and told him to tell his people what He said, Moses asked, "Who should I say sent me?"

God replied to tell them, "I AM sent you."

God was referring to Himself as "I am." I'm sure someone can explain that much better than me, but it's very deep.

Great question!

2007-01-22 22:40:38 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

What you need to know is this: If you will notice in the Old Testament only, God is written 2 ways: GOD and God. Lord is also written 2 ways: LORD and Lord. When GOD is written this way it refers to Father God. When it is written God it is referring to God the Son (Jesus). When LORD is written this way it refers to God the Son (Jesus) because He was given Lordship over all and when it is written Lord it refers to God the Father. GOD the Father and God the Son were both active in the Old Testament. All you have to do is study out the names. This does not pertain to the New Testament. There are many times in the Old Testament when God refers someone back to Him because it is their place to present themselves before God on their own. It think it's because God wants him to search himself and return to the one true God. Maybe this will help.

2007-01-22 23:03:29 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

He is the God that did that. Therefore, there is one God. I have no idea why God spoke to him like that, but who am I to question Him?

Edit:
I'll try to go more directly to your questions:
I think that it is the same God.
It goes unquestioned because most people believe the same as me...maybe all.
I think it hasn't been removed because it actually emphasizes past experiences in the Bible, so that you may build a memory of events.
I think the above answers answer the last question.

Hope that did some help.

2007-01-22 22:35:53 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

This is Genesis 35, not 34. I get your point but most translations say "God" rather than "the God". You can look at 20 English translations at this site if you want to see what I mean:

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2035%20;&version=31;


Either way it's open to interpretation.

Most folks believe what they want to believe and you're free to do so as well.

2007-01-22 22:46:47 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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