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Why do they contradict? Is the one in Luke Mary's bloodline? Jesus has two different grandfathers according to the two different bloodlines but both still trace back to David/Abraham.

I'm taking a guess that one was Mary's bloodline though I don't know for sure.

2007-01-22 06:15:39 · 14 answers · asked by Thinking 'bout it 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

14 answers

That is correct, one is from Mary, the other is from Joseph

2007-01-22 06:17:57 · answer #1 · answered by Sirius 3 · 2 0

You are correct. The genelogy in Luke is the bloodline of his mother Mary. Because Jesus was not physicaly conceived by Joseph, he did not have any of Joseph's genes. But He had to still be of the bloodline of David. That is why the bloodline of Mary is given. So there would be no question about his lineage. When a man married into a family, he became a "son of" that family. They did not use a separate term (son-in-law) like we do in English.

Look again a Matthew, and you will see that it states there are 14 generations from Abraham to David, 14 from David to the Captivity, and 14 from the Captivity to Jesus. But if you count the last section, there are only 13 names listed. The 14th name is that of Mary. The verse actually says "Joseph, the husband of mary, of who was born Christ". Jesus was not born from Joseph. He was only the husband of Mary. Jesus was born of Mary. She is that missing 14th generation. So the virgin birth is stated in the genealogy of Matthew.

2007-01-22 06:31:21 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0 0

Well, the question I have when I read this is that in Matthew, the Gospel traces Christ's bloodlines through Joseph. now the ancients were not idiots. They understood where babies came from. So was the Virgin Birth tacked onto the narrative? After all, it was a common biographer's device at the time.

I also find it interesting that a little later in Matthew, the Gospel claims that Joseph and Mary did not have marital relations until after Christ's birth, yet some denominations believe in Mary's perpetual virginity.

What gives? And does it really make Christ less holy if he were conceived in the normal way?

2007-01-22 06:20:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Correct, both Mary and Joseph are of the bloodline of David

Good observation in reading the 2 gospels

2007-01-24 07:22:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

One is Jesus through Mary and one is Jesus through Joseph. The one through Mary was to show the Jews (who follow bloodlines throug the mother) that Jesus was the Messieh, and the one through Josesph was to show Gentiles (like the Greeks who follow bloodlines through the father) that Jesus was the Messieh. After all, your bloodline from your father is different then from your mother. However, both Mary and Joseph decended from the line of David, so part of his blood line will cross.

2007-01-22 06:23:23 · answer #5 · answered by sister steph 6 · 0 0

Most people assume that Luke is tracing Mary's bloodline. The reason why Joseph is listed by Luke as being the "son" of Heli is that Joseph was the head of the household (In other words, a more accurate translation into English should be that Joseph was the son by marriage (i.e.; son-in-law) of Heli).

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...Several theories have been proposed to explain the apparent discrepancies between Matthew and Luke:

1) The oldest one, ascribed to Julius Africanus, uses the concept of Levirate marriage, and suggests that Matthan (grandfather of Joseph according to Matthew), and Matthat (grandfather of Joseph according to Luke), were brothers, married to the same woman one after another - this would mean that Matthan's son (Jacob) could be Joseph's biological father, and Matthat's son (Heli), was his legal father.

2) That Luke's genealogy is of Mary, with Heli being her father, while Matthew's describes the genealogy of Joseph.

3) That Matthew records the passing on of kingship, while Luke records biological parentage, though this fails to explain why kings that were not father to the next have been excluded from Matthew's list. Similarly, that Luke gives the actual genealogy while Matthew presents a "ceremonial" one, for example, Neri being Shealtiel's natural father, but Jeconiah being the prior leader of the Jewish people.

4) That at least one, and possibly both, of the genealogies is simply fabricated, thus explaining the divergence.

5) According to Barbara Thiering in her book Jesus the man, Jacob and Heli are one and the same. Heli took the name "Jacob" for his title as patriarch. The true genealogy is that in Luke's gospel, and in Matthew's gospel Heli's line is grafted in to the royal line running down through Solomon....

2007-01-22 06:21:06 · answer #6 · answered by Randy G 7 · 0 0

It does not contradict. Both grand father's could have come from David. Remember that David had several children and his children had several children, so in the large group of people that have David as an ancestor, both "grand fathers" could have been from the bloodline of David. Maybe I did not understand the question correctly.

If you would like to ask me something, or give extra details feel free to e-mail me at Cary_tony@yahoo.com

2007-01-22 06:19:40 · answer #7 · answered by tony c 2 · 1 0

First, does all of us care no matter if you do not settle for the very actuality of Luke's line is tracing Mary's line? Secondly, promises were made to David which both lines did. ultimately, a virgin delivery is the purely way for Jesus' sacrifice to change into effectual. purely a appropriate human existence will be exchanged for the cost of Adam's existence. a minimum of one ascertain must be appropriate as God become. Oddly on the prompt, we haven't any difficulty if we understand drugs about a virgin delivery. man made insemination is person-friendly position. (with out a male being modern.) Projections are for taking genetic fabric from bones to remake an embryo into the donors' image. this doesn't require adult males in any respect. We do exactly no longer imagine of virgin delivery in that way.

2016-10-15 22:52:41 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Neither of them are mentioned as being the bloodline of Jesus, but of Joseph.

2007-01-22 06:19:11 · answer #9 · answered by darth_maul_8065 5 · 0 0

Since the bible is inerrant, they must be talking about two different jesuses.

Another explanation is that somebody doctored a bloodline to match some prophecy or another.

2007-01-22 06:26:57 · answer #10 · answered by eldad9 6 · 0 0

Yes exactly. One follows Mary's line and the other follows Joseph. Good job! You would be amazed at the number of people who haven't figured that out.

2007-01-22 06:19:56 · answer #11 · answered by cnm 4 · 0 0

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