In the Gospel of John, there are four verses (John 13:23; 19:26; 21:7; 21:20) which refer to the "disciple whom Jesus loved", generally interpreted to be John himself.
Several scholars have used these verses to argue that Jesus and John had a homosexual relationship, recently most notably by Jennings (2003). Jennings argues that these verses and the intimacy displayed between Jesus and John, especially at the Last Supper where John is described (John 13:23) as "reclining next to him" (TNIV) or "leaning on Jesus' bosom" (KJV), strongly implies that they were in a homosexual relationship.
However, this interpretation is rejected by most Biblical scholars. For example, Vasey (pp.121-124) uses the "deepest intimacy" of the friendship of Jesus and John to affirm homosexual relationships, but rejects the idea that Jesus and John themselves were in a homosexual relationship.
What are your opinions?
2007-01-21
16:33:23
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20 answers
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asked by
Scarlet Crusader
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in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
First L, if you could elaborate your answer?
2007-01-21
16:49:57 ·
update #1
I don't think he was. Interpretation can come out just about any way you want it to. It wouldn't bother me, but like so many other things, there is no need to prove it. Who were these scholars, should be interesting to find out. Did they have an agenda besides historical fact.
2007-01-21 16:43:14
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answer #1
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answered by metoo 7
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The theory is ridiculous and may be an attempt by people who support the homosexual agenda to get Jesus "on their side". Consider this passage.
John 11:5 Now Jesus loved Martha and her sister and Lazarus.
Someone with an agenda could distort that line to claim that Jesus was really bisexual and engaged in a foursome. But that would contradict the rest of the Biblical record that says that Jesus lived a sinless life so that He could serve as the perfect sacrifice for our sins.
Jesus is the only one who could pay someone else's sin debt because He is the only one who didn't have one of his own to pay. But people who want to stay in their sins are always looking to distort the Scriptures so that they can have an excuse not to repent and turn to Jesus as their LORD and Savior.
2007-01-21 16:41:59
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answer #2
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answered by Martin S 7
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Jesus loved many according to Bible passages. Including families. Does that mean he had group sex and orgies!
Love and sex are not the same thing. You can easily have either one without the other.
I suppose you are extrapolating to the point where you think "them good ol' boys" and the "boys club" and even gangs like the Crips are homosexual clans.
Do you think that's what the East Coast and West Coast boys do in their chop shops when their not taking cars apart, making meth or cutting down crack for distribution.
There are very few gang girls, you know.
This is your extrapolation based upon guys in pool halls who've known each other since highschool are up to based upon the fact they band to together and exclude women as a general rule.
2007-01-21 18:36:32
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Well if the Gnostic gospels are to be believed, the reason it probably seems like there was homosexual overtones is because Mary Magdalenes true role was suppressed by people who then edited the bible...it becomes clear that it was likely Mary Magdalene who Jesus had a relationship with... The bible was changed and the womans role was revised in a demeaning manner (she was portrayed as a prostitute) in order to fill whatever agenda at the time. When you leave Mary out of the picture, of course Jesus seems likely to be gay.. but with the missing information we can conclude that originally he was portrayed as having a woman companion..
Excerpt from Wikipedia, Gnostic Gospels...
Mary Magdalene
The Gospel of Philip has been cited for the idea that Jesus married Mary Magdalene[2] Much of the Gospel of Philip is dedicated to a discussion of marriage as a sacred mystery, and two passages directly refer to Mary Magdalene and her close relationship with Jesus:
There were three who always walked with the Lord: Mary, his mother, and her sister, and Magdalene, the one who was called his companion. His sister and his mother and his companion were each a Mary.
That passage is also interesting for its mention of Jesus's sister (Jesus's sisters are also mentioned in the New Testament at Mark 6:3), although the text is confusing on that point: she appears to be described first as the Virgin Mary's sister, then as the sister of Jesus, although this may be a translation problem. The other passage referring to Mary Magdalene is incomplete due to damage to the original manuscript. Several words are missing. The best guesses as to what they were are shown below in brackets. Most notably there is a hole in the manuscript after the phrase "and used to kiss her often on her...." But the passage appears to describe Jesus kissing Magdalene and using a parable to explain to the disciples why he loved her more than he loved them:
And the companion of [the savior was] Mary Magdalene. [Christ loved] her more than [all] the disciples, [and used to] kiss her [often] on her [mouth? face? cheek? head?]. The rest of [the disciples were offended by it and expressed disapproval]. They said to him "Why do you love her more than all of us?" The Savior answered and said to them, "Why do I not love you like her? When a blind man and one who sees are both together in darkness, they are no different from one another. When the light comes, then he who sees will see the light, and he who is blind will remain in darkness."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Phillip#Mary_Magdalene
2007-01-21 16:53:03
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answer #4
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answered by Kelly + Eternal Universal Energy 7
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I reacon its pretty discusting, if you ask me...
When a guys hugs a female friend, are they automatically engaged in a sexual or intimate relationship of somesort?? I do not think so...or is it ok to assume that they hold pure friendship feelings towards each other with no intention of being 'partners' per-say?
Ever seen to guys labeled as "home boys" slap each other's hands and hug intimately as 'Brothers'?
are they Homosexual? I doubt it...How come when Jesus does it, it is automatically Homosexual? Or is it just because it is Jesus Christ and His Christian desciples, all of the sudden, they are not allowed to have FRIENDSHIPS and pure brotherly love between them?
I think we need to realise who is the writer and what the context of such attrotious theories hold as intentions.
God Bless.
2007-01-21 16:41:18
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answer #5
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answered by copticphoenix 3
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I mean it is obvious that Jesus was not a homosexual. I mean don't you think that the Jews, who really dispised what Jesus did while he was on Earth would have wrote about that in their writtings? And when you read the gospels they are always trying to "catch" Jesus doing something against God's word or to blaspheme or something. I mean they could of had him executed because of homosexual practices according to Jewish law.
2007-01-21 16:41:35
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Well as far as I am concerned..anyone who chooses to self interpret all forms of love to make them say anything they want it to say are just that..making wild assumptions. There is NO evidence in scripture that Christ was a homosexual...the words loved dearly etc do not indicate such a thing.
Besides..the Bible says that Christ is perfect, sinless etc...and homosexuality is called an abomination in scripture..sooooo, I will believe scripture over any scholars anyday.
2007-01-21 16:40:18
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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I've never heard of someone who stood for a belief system that did not at one time or another do something out line with that belief system. We have no way of knowing if Jesus was gay, but given the evidence, it seems possible.
2007-01-21 16:53:17
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answer #8
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answered by Subconsciousless 7
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i truly doubt that this passage in John is indicative of a gay relationship between Jesus and John. Many customs that look gay to us interior the fashionable West does no longer have regarded so which you're able to desire to human beings in 1st century Israel. i do no longer understand approximately this particular custom of leaning on one's bosom, yet i understand that Arab adult males on the instant nonetheless greet one yet another with a kiss on the cheek. Such habit could elicit snickers and jokes if completed interior the West, even though it extremely is completely generic to them. Even pupils are services to cultural misinterpretations. If there is any information in choose of the view that Jesus grow to be gay, it may be interior the undeniable fact that he on no account married. It grow to be merely assumed that each and each guy could get married, and it extremely is going to have been suspicious that Jesus on no account did, and that he hung around with twelve adult males each and all of the time. i truly do no longer think of there is adequate information to assist this view, because of the fact it extremely is totally obtainable that Jesus on no account have been given married because of the fact he believed in abstaining from fabric pleasures. yet in assessment to others who responded this question, i do no longer reject the possibility that Jesus grow to be gay out of hand or accuse its supporters of blasphemy.
2016-11-26 01:26:58
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answer #9
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answered by kull 4
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Loving someone of the same sex doesnt mean you have sex with them. Doesn't mean you're gay. It's just like when people want to get high, they claim Jesus got high too. "Scholars" just think if they convince Christians Jesus was gay they'll accept gay marriage.
2007-01-21 16:42:51
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answer #10
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answered by impossble_dream 6
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