As he went along, he saw a man blind from birth. His disciples asked him, "Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?" John 9: 1,2
This is a very peculiar passage in the NT. We are told that the blind man had been this way from birth, yet his disciples ask if his blindness was the result of his own sin. How could this man have sinned prior to his birth? It is also interesting that Jesus does not seem to find the question at all odd.
2007-01-21
08:23:24
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15 answers
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asked by
Wisdom in Faith
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➔ Religion & Spirituality
I understand the part of the question the disciples asked about if the man was blind because of the sins of his parents. However, that does not explain the part of the question about if the man himself had sinned to cause his blindness he had from birth. If the man had not had a previous life to sin, then when would he have sinned prior to his birth to cause his affliction?
2007-01-21
10:26:08 ·
update #1
WELL SPOTTED! The bible never explicitly mentions it, but a number of the gnostic gospels describe something very similar to reincarnation. Now, whether you believe the gnostic gospels or not is up to you, but they were a major part of early Christianity, until of course Constantine's newly formed chruch condemned them as heretics and had them all put to death.
2007-01-21 08:34:37
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answer #1
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answered by dead_elves 3
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The disciples wondered whether the man was blind because of a sin either of his parents had committed; this is not suggestive of reincarnation. This understanding is consistent with Old Testament teachings from God that certain "sins of the fathers" will be "visited on the sons."
Neither the Old Testament nor the New Testament supports reincarnation. In fact, we are expressly told in the New Testament at Hebrews 9:27 that "And as it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment." So once a person has died, it's over -- they have no further opportunities to justify themselves before God if they failed to do so in life.
EDIT: With regard to your follow up question, this also does not imply reincarnation. There was little understanding of the disease process in Biblical times and most folks thought a person became blind either because their parents sinned or the person sinned. The latter conclusion is supported by Biblical passages such as Zephaniah 1:17, where God tells the prophet He will blind those who sin against Him. Regardless, Jesus' response explains that NEITHER scenario (parents' sin or the man's sin) caused the blindness -- therefore, this is conclusive proof that reincarnation isn't being discussed here. And as I explained above, the Bible specifically teaches against reincarnation.
2007-01-21 08:36:06
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answer #2
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answered by Suzanne: YPA 7
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Reincarnation and the immortality of the soul at the prompt are not inevitably appropriate. Reincarnation as usually defined to day is in none of any scripture of any substantial faith, Buddhism blanketed. i'm no longer advantageous I totally accept as true with you about the starting up of the training of reincarnation, although there is a few actuality there. yet is the soul immortal? From what I have studied, from what I have chanced on, the soul is immortal yet God doesn't enable guy to flow by ability of a dismal, dismal existence which include this a 2d time. And that encompasses a 2d stint as a reincarnated human.
2016-10-15 21:51:54
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answer #3
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answered by gettinger 4
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I Timothy 2:15
The scriptures say the sins of the fathers can be passed down to the third and forth generation. God is trying to keep people from ungodly acts. But why did you not finish, John 9:3 when Jesus said " neither has this man sinned or his parents".Are you trying to cause dought in others, If so you just failed !!!!!!!!!!!!!!
If reincarnation were possible then everything would not multiply. Add up all the people, insects, and animals and it would always be the same number
2007-01-21 08:36:29
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answer #4
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answered by white dove 5
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There are many problems with the salvation-by works doctrine of reincarnation. First, there are many practical problems. For example:
1. We must ask, why does one get punished for something he or she cannot remember having done in a previous life?
2. If the purpose of karma is to rid humanity of its selfish desires, then why hasn't there been a noticeable improvement in human nature after all the millennia of reincarnations?
3. If reincarnation and the law of karma are so beneficial on a practical level, then how do advocates of this doctrine explain the immense and ever-worsening social and economic problems - including widespread poverty, starvation, disease, and horrible suffering - in India, where reincarnation has been systematically taught through out its history?
There are also many biblical problems with believing in reincarnation. For example, in 2 Corinthians 5:8 the apostle Paul states, "We are confident, I say, and would prefer to be away from the body and at home with the Lord." At death, the, the Christian immediately goes into the presence of the Lord, not into another body. In keeping with this. Luke 16:19-31 tells us that unbelievers at death go to a place of suffering, not into another body.
Further, Hebrews 9:27 assures us that "man is destined to die once, and after that to face judgment." Each human being LIVES ONCE as a mortal on earth, DIES ONCE, and then FACES JUDGMENT. He does not have a second chance by reincarnating into another body.
2007-01-21 10:01:05
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answer #5
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answered by Freedom 7
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Yes. But the main question is why it was not being expounded seriously by Christian faith when it's there in their book.
I love it when they always bring this verse out whenever a question of reincarnation comes out here:
Hebrews 9:27 And just as it is appointed for man to die once, and after that comes judgment
What is a man? Isn't that a body with a soul? Isn't it every reincarnated body will experience death. And every judgement reincarnates a new man. I don't see any violation on that verse.
2007-01-21 08:44:00
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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No, the Bible supports the doctrine of resurrection not reincarnation.
Hebrews 9:27 And just as it is appointed for man to die once, and after that comes judgment,
The passage you quoted has to do with a common belief among the Jewish peoples in Jesus' day that God would curse parents for their sins by causing one of their children to be handicapped or that God would make someone handicapped because of their own sins.
2007-01-21 08:28:55
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answer #7
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answered by Martin S 7
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The scripture says exactly what it means, was it something he did or his parents. Consider the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah. The sins of the parents were played upon the children, until they are of the age of understanding. The same applies today, but parents think that if they baptize their babies, than they are safe and the parents can sin all they want.
2007-01-21 08:59:39
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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The Bible also refers to generational curses passed by ancestors, that only the name of Jesus can subdue.
Praise Jesus.
2007-01-21 08:28:42
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answer #9
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answered by Doug 5
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The bible in no ways suggests that reincarnation is possible and in fact makes the opposite point, it is appointed for men to die once and then be judged.
2007-01-21 08:30:51
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answer #10
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answered by james p 3
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