And besides, if one is suppose to be innocent until proven guilty, why does one have to pay any bail. Even if the suspect is given back their bail after they are declared not guilty, the government always keeps a portion of it for "adminstrative fees."
2007-01-21 00:16:41 · 6 answers · asked by Fishy5499 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
setting bail is used for 1. preventing or discouraging unlawful flight from prosecution 2. keeping dangerous persons out of society. as far as keeping a portion of the bail fee, i doubt this is true, they may have kept a portion for fines or court costs owed.
2007-01-21 02:20:30 · answer #1 · answered by Officer Baz Says... 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think there should be NO bail on serious crimes at ALL, especially if the crime involves a victim, or is violent. I don't understand how bail or bond can be granted when there is a victim that the perp can go back and find, or when the perp can just run and never come back. It's not about the government keeping the money, the perp or the family gets the money back when the perp goes to court. Any fees that are paid are paid to the bail bondsman.
2007-01-21 09:00:44 · answer #2 · answered by lyquidskye 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Who told you they keep a portion of it?
Is this the voice of experience, or just something your buddies
told you when they were out on bail?
As for posting bail at all, let's say your wife or daughter were brutally raped, innocent until proven guilty right? Let that guy out
what do you care, you think he's not guilty right?
It's always different when you are invovled in the case huh?
Then even the most liberal Democrat begs for harsh penalties.
2007-01-21 00:36:50 · answer #3 · answered by Lt. Dan reborn 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In France it's the other way around "Guilty until proven innocent" and your lawyer can only advise you do all your own speaking, Count your blessings
2007-01-21 00:21:49 · answer #4 · answered by Sid B 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
All bail does - gets you out of jail. And you will remain free until sentencing.
2007-01-21 02:44:48 · answer #5 · answered by docie555@yahoo.com 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
mybye because of the fact in the event that they have the motovation to circulate via the imogration prosses then the could desire to atleast behave on the different hand can we get sent to mexico invariably if we do drugs? so im a dem so no its mean !!!!!!!!!!
2016-11-25 23:48:46 · answer #6 · answered by goulette 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋