what does the NT say about homosexuality?

Question

Does it mention the word homosexuality specifically or does most all translations say the more general phrase "sexual imorallity"?

Answer 1

The Greek text of the NT does NOT use the specific word homosexual. If you have a Bible that uses the specific word "homosexual," then you need to throw it out and get a new Bible, the translators have taken gross liberties.

The word being translated to "homosexual" in 1 Corithians 6, and 1 Timothy 1 is "arsenokoitai." This word does not appear in Greek writings prior to Paul's use of it in the NT. Paul made the word up!!

Nobody knows for sure what meaning Paul was trying to convey by it's use. If the meaning Paul wanted to convey was homosexual, then he would have used the word "paiderasste", which was the term used at the time for male homosexual. The word "paiderasste" does not appear in the Bible.

"Arsenokoitai" is made up of two parts: "arsen" means "man"; "koitai" means "beds." Literally translated "arsenokoitai" is a "male-bedder." It is interesting to note that during the time of Martin Luther, the word was universally translated as masturbators. It wasn't until the 20th century that it began being translated to homosexual. The Catholic Encyclopedia of 1967 is thought to be the last time that "arsenokoitai" was translated as masturbators.

Male-bedder has also been interpreted to mean a male prostitute. Which seems to me would be much closer to it's meaning than homosexual.

The Greek word being translated as effeminate is "malakoi." The word appears two other times in the NT, both times being translated as "soft." Taken in the context of this passage some believe it to actually mean "soft in morals." Within it's context, that meaning makes more sense than it does as a descriptive of a person's outward mannerisms.

Jesus, himself, never says one word against homosexuality. If it is the grave sin it is made out to be, then you would think that Jesus would have mentioned it.

In fact, Jesus may have confirmed that homosexuals are from birth in Matthew 19:11. The modern meaning of the word eunuch is a castrated male. However, in ancient times it was a broad term that included any man who lacked sexual desire for women for whatever reason. Hence, their use as chamberlains or officers in the Bible. It should be noted that men who are castrated after puberty do not lose their sex drive, and historically have made untrustworthy chamberlains. In fact, many women of the harem preferred having sex with castrated males because they could not get pregnant by them.

Jesus even states that not everyone can accept this word. If eunuch simply meant a castrated male or a person born with deformed genitals, then why would some not be able to accept this word? If the ancient term "eunuch" did indeed include homosexuals (some surviving ancient Roman literature points to this), then Jesus was proven right, some cannot accept that homosexuality is normal and natural from birth.

BTW: Sodom and Gomorrah were not destroyed because of homosexuality.

The decision to destroy the city of Sodom was made prior to the incident with the angels.

Ezekeiel 16:49-50 tells us exactly why the city of Sodom was destroyed: "Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. They were haughty and did detestable things before me. Therefore I did away with them as you have seen." There is no mention of homosexuality.

In Matthew 10:14-15 & Luke 10:7-16, Jesus implies that the sin of the people of Sodom was inhospitality to strangers.

Jude 1:7 talks about the sin of Sodom as "going after strange flesh." That would seem to me to be talking about bestiality, the angels were not human. Would angels even be confined to definitions of male or female sexual characteristics?

The other problem with saying that this story is about homosexuality is that Lot offers his two daughters to the mob. Lot lived in Sodom and would have certainly known if the men in the mob were homosexual. Why would he even offer his two daughters to a mob of homosexuals? If the mob's intentions were homosexual in nature, then why didn't Lot offer the mob his two future son-in-laws?

Romans 1:26-27 is not speaking about people with a homosexual orientation. It is speaking specifically about heterosexual men and women who go against their own sexual orientation.

The key word here is "exchanges." That implies that the men and women being talked about had known something different previously. They had previously known the truth about God, then exchanged him for what they knew to be a lie, (what went against their own nature.) They had previously been heterosexual, and again exchanged it for what goes against their own nature.

The same would ring true if their sexual orientation had been homosexual and then they exchanged it for heterosexuality, which would go against their own nature.

Answer 2

The "old" King James version in I Corinthians 6:9 is as follows; "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind," The list continues into the next verse. You will see at the end of verse 9 the phrase, "abusers of themselves with mankind" is the phrase you are referring to. That is interpreted in other versions as sexual imorality. The Bible does not use the word homosexuality. In Sodom and Gamorah, sorry if I misspelled that, the men wanted other men rather than women and women had unnatural relations with other women, that is why God distoyed the cities by burning them. In the New Testament, there are other passages that deal with the subject. Another one is I Timothy 1:9&10. The NT then, as I see it states that it is a sin and (I can't find the specific passage) that God gave them over to the depravity of their mind and then lists what that means. In the list, it mentions women having unnatural relations with each other and men lusting after other men. I think that is clearly telling us that homosexuality is a depravity that God gives us over to for ignoring him and his warnings. I am glad that you asked this question. There is controversy over whether a person is born a homosexual. I believe that the womb of a woman is where the Jezebel spirit resides in the rebellious churches of Revelation. So, yes a person can be born that way or become that way later on for not heeding God's word. Either way, it is a sin and only God can change the heart of a man to do His will.

Answer 3

Though the New Testament doesn't mention the word "homosexuality," it describes it closely enough to make it identifiable. It's described as an immoral sin.
In the Book of Romans, chapter 1, the Apostle Paul expresses disgust at homosexuality. He begins by mentioning that there are people who, despite God's grace, obdurately resist the Word of God, and, because of this, God left them to their
"vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet." (Romans 1:26--27)

In the above passage, note also that Paul says that homosexual sex is a perversion of the body; it is using the body for something that is not only against God, but is against nature itself. Paul also describes it as something "unseemly" and, at the end, states that those who engage in homosexual behavior eventually receive a punishment that they fully deserve.
Homosexuality is also identified as a sin that can bar one from entrance into the kingdom of God. I Corinthians 6:9--10 says: "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind [homosexuals]...shall inherit the kingdom of God."
Though the Bible doesn't use the word "homosexual," it does describe the sin enough to make it identifiable, and it does convey an attitude of repulsion toward the sin.

Answer 4

See for yourself.
Romans 1: 18-32
I Corinthians 6:9-11
I Timothy 1:8-11

Answer 5

Well, he looked as if it would consider the Old Testament legislation, which incorporated that persons who dedicated gay acts will have to be carried out. "Think no longer that I have come to abolish the regulation and the prophets; I have come to not abolish them however to fulfil them. For real, I say to you, until heaven and earth go away, no longer an iota, no longer a dot, will go from the regulation till all is completed. Whoever then relaxes probably the most least of those commandments and teaches guys so, will probably be referred to as least within the kingdom of heaven; however he who does them and teaches them will probably be referred to as first-class within the kingdom of heaven. For I inform you, except your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you are going to under no circumstances input the dominion of heaven." (Matthew five:17-20) And that is why I do not totally like Jesus.

Answer 6

KJV 1 Corinthians 6:9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate (malakós), nor abusers of themselves with mankind (arsenokoítēs), (10) Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.

malakós - Soft to the touch, spoken of clothing made of soft materials, fine texture (Mat_11:8; Luk_7:25). Figuratively it means effeminate or a person who allows himself to be sexually abused contrary to nature. Paul, in 1Co_6:9, joins the malakoí, the effeminate, with arsenokoítai (G733), homosexuals, Sodomites.

arsenokoítēs - masc. noun, from ársēn (G730), a male, and koítē (G2845), a bed. A man who lies in bed with another male, a homosexual

English Majority Text Version
1 Corinthians 6:9 Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites, (10) nor covetous, nor thieves, nor drunkards, nor abusive people, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.

Answer 7

1 Cor 6:9 Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders

And also the first chapter of Romans speaks long about homosexual practices.

Answer 8

Romans 1:18-32.

It gets pretty specific.....

Answer 9

Sex outside the bonds of matrimony is sin. Marriage is between a man and a woman. Your argument that homosexuality could ever be anything but sin is ridiculous.if sex between two men is okay the also is sex between unmarrieds of opposite sex also okay...Is this rational or are yous saying all sex outside of wedlock is not sin. Even better sex outside of marriage is okay only if your partner is of the same sex...Your argument is ludicrous.