forms of most nouns? Don't they have as much right to remain in use as the masculine forms, in a culture where the sexes are equal?
2007-01-20 04:52:33 · 4 answers · asked by Emmaean 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
In a world where the common line is "celebrate diversity" it does seem a little odd that anyone who even subtly refers to the differences between masculine and feminine is shunned as a misogynist. And by the way, why is waitress offensive when server is appropriate? Server seems closer to servant to me. And what is wrong with steward? I would love to be recognized and honored for my femininity. As a matter of fact, I feel that by obliterating language that is woman-friendly one is oppressing my right to personal expression and individuality. It is forced inculturation and that is absolutely not PC.
2007-01-20 05:09:16 · answer #1 · answered by theinfalliblenena 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
The masculine form is understood to include the feminine. Even in languages that have gender for inanimate objests, the masc. is taken as including the feminine, e.g. Spanish "Salà con unos amigos" - I went out with some friends - you don't have to say "..unos amogos y unas amigas".
The more a language develops, the more it rids itself of subtle trappings of this kind. The examples you gave are all of 'borrowed' words from other languages (Latin & French) and retain an indication of their feminine form in English.
2007-01-20 13:05:55 · answer #2 · answered by JJ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
And why they keep saying Doctor to a female physician instead of "Doctress"?
2007-01-20 13:32:59 · answer #3 · answered by QQ dri lu 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the sexes are equal, then one word should be able to cover both.
2007-01-20 12:56:12 · answer #4 · answered by Draco Paladin 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋