who the hell was he praying to???? does he have personality disorders or does he hear voices talking to him?? hes obviously not the most normal chicken in the barn
2007-01-20
03:50:22
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14 answers
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asked by
howdy
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in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
yes im aware i spelled skizzofrenic horribly wrong and i really dont give a ****
2007-01-20
03:50:49 ·
update #1
i mean christians did say jesus was god-but if he was praying to god then wouldnt he be praying to himself????
2007-01-20
03:52:54 ·
update #2
Hmmm....speak of the devil. If you happen to see a parade of swine marching toward a precipice....don't join them!
2007-01-20 03:52:57
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answer #1
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answered by 4999_Basque 6
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Jesus the son was praying to God the father.
2007-01-20 11:59:59
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answer #2
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answered by B"Quotes 6
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Jesus (the son) prayed to God (the father).
2007-01-20 13:16:52
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answer #3
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answered by jasmin2236 7
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From hence evidence we can logically deduce that (if the Bible is true) Jesus of Nazareth was not an incarnation of God. For if he was, then he prayed to himself which no all-knowing being of wisdom would do.
2007-01-20 11:53:01
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answer #4
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answered by Theophile 2
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Spell check is working pretty slow this morning , I may have misspelled some too, but there is always the dictionary!
No, Jesus was not a schizophrenic.
2007-01-20 12:50:13
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answer #5
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answered by June smiles 7
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No, He is not. Jesus Christ is God.
The Jesus you speak of is the Son of God....whom YOU will have the opportunity to meet face-to-face on Judgement day.
I might suggest that you take care with what you say about Jesus, the Living God, if only in jest.
You will have to answer for your words at that time.
"But I say unto you that every idle word that men shall speak,
they shall give account of it in the day of judgement.
For by thy words thou shalt be justified, and by thy words
thou shalt be condemned."
The words of Jesus Christ
Matthew 12:36-37
2007-01-20 11:54:00
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answer #6
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answered by Chef Bob 5
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Have ye never read what King david said?
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Ps 110:1
The LORD (YHVH)said unto my Lord (Adonai), Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
These are both of the Hebrew names of God.
If the Messiah was to be the son of David, why does He call Him Lord?
2007-01-20 11:58:11
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answer #7
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answered by Sirius 3
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He prayed to His father, just as He taught us to do.No He did not hear voices.
2007-01-20 11:57:47
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answer #8
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answered by gwhiz1052 7
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No..This Question Is The Anti-Christ Tho..!!!
2007-01-20 11:54:17
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answer #9
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answered by Blonde_VBALLER 2
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No. He talks to God.
2007-01-20 11:52:53
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answer #10
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answered by dorazioyoman6 2
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