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Very specifically please.


And also in that same verse what does it mean that except for those who have been cheated on, if they divorce their wife, they cause her to become an adulteress?
Is this not clearly condoning divorced women to fool around but prohibits them from getting married? ......Matthew really knows what he's talking about me thinks!

(please only answer if you have any reading comprehension skill at all).

2007-01-20 01:10:03 · 23 answers · asked by janesweetjane 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Linda: you are not reading it correctly. AT all. If you had any reading comprehension, you would see quite clearly it states that except for women who have ONLY been cheated on, you cause her to become an adulteress: condoning that she fool around, because the new sentence states that it is forbidden for any man to marry a divorcee.

2007-01-20 01:21:39 · update #1

23 answers

because the man must have one women only and also the women to live in peace

2007-01-20 01:14:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

my understanding of this is that divorce is permitted on the grounds on adultery and that divorce for any reason other then adulertry is not permitted.
As far as a man divorcing his wife when there has not been adultery since the only way thing that is grounds for divorce is adultery then the divorce of a man from his wife when adultery was not the case is not a real divorce.
The woman the wife is not really divorced in but it is resonable for the wife to desire children and all the sexual aspects of marriage to the point that the woman shall not be held guilty for
seeking a new husband.
this means that the wife is freed from he respondisblility to remain faithfull to the husband that we now call the first husband
The teaching is not that a woman who is divorced by the husband for reasons other then adulterty should go about having sex with lots of men but is instead just accepting that she may have the need to seek a new marriage .
If there is really any confussion here it is that no man may marry a divorced woman and no man other then the husband may have sex or lust after the married woman . So while she is freed from guilt in this matter men are not as they are to not be with the woman.
i suppose if this teaching were to go on it would state that should the wife leave the area where she is known and not inform men that she had been married or is married that the men who lust after her or the man who marries her while being unaware of her past is not guilty either.
however i am not suggesting that my conclusion of the new mens inocents is to be followed as i am not capable of judging
or even slightly projecting the additional means of the bible.
I think that it is important to note that back then a woman was even more in need of a husband in order to have an income or just enough food and what not to not be utterly poor.
this was not so much because of customs at the time but because of other factors .

2007-01-20 01:33:15 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I have been a Bible teacher for several years...Martin S has the most accurate answer so far. I wanted to add that you have to take the entire Bible and use your discerning skills as to the context that is being referenced. Some churches base their entire reason for existance on one or two verses and throw out the rest. There is a religious sect which believes the word God should be replaced with the word Jehovah...which is merely the English pronunciation of Yahweh, as Jesus is the English pronunciation of Yeshua. When it comes down to it, God knows your heart, and if your motive for divorce or remarriage is for lust or some other sinful reason. I divorced my first wife because she abandoned my children, and went to live with another man when I was away in military training. I remarried a couple of years later to a Christian divorced woman after much prayer and studying. I didn't believe I had the ability to raise two daughters without a woman's help, and the Lord's. We were concerned about the same divorce issue, but we realized after studying the Holy Bible, and some good Christian marriage counseling books (titles escaped me) that God would accept our relationship. We were baptized together at the church we were attending in 1998. God knows if we are sinning or not. Martin S should get your vote as best answer.

2007-01-20 03:32:40 · answer #3 · answered by Jalapinomex 5 · 1 0

Strictly speaking, there are only two Biblical grounds for divorce. The first is given in the passage you are quoting. If a person's spouse breaks the covenant bond of marriage by having sex with another person then the two are no longer one flesh and even though God hates divorce and would hope that the couple could become reconciled, He makes an allowance for divorce in such a case.

The second allowance for divorce is found in 1 Corinthians chapter 7 where Paul writes that if someone is married to an unbeliever and the unbeliever abandons the marriage then the believer is no longer bound to that relationship. Paul also tells us that if two believers have a marriage where they feel the need to separate that they should either be reconciled or remain celibate and still consider themselves to be married even if they no longer live in the same house together.

1 Corinthians 7:10 To the married I give this charge (not I, but the Lord): the wife should not separate from her husband (11) (but if she does, she should remain unmarried or else be reconciled to her husband), and the husband should not divorce his wife. (12) To the rest I say (I, not the Lord) that if any brother has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he should not divorce her. (13) If any woman has a husband who is an unbeliever, and he consents to live with her, she should not divorce him. (14) For the unbelieving husband is made holy because of his wife, and the unbelieving wife is made holy because of her husband. Otherwise your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy. (15) But if the unbelieving partner separates, let it be so. In such cases the brother or sister is not enslaved. God has called you to peace.

Your question about the passage from Matthew condoning divorced women "fooling around" overlooks the fact that such a woman would be living a life that was characterized by sin. So it is better to see this passage as a dire warning to married couples to honor their commitment before God and to not put themselves in a position where they would have to remain celebate the rest of their lives or risk the fiery judgment of God.

Hebrews 10:26 For if we go on sinning deliberately after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, (27) but a fearful expectation of judgment, and a fury of fire that will consume the adversaries. (28) Anyone who has set aside the law of Moses dies without mercy on the evidence of two or three witnesses. (29) How much worse punishment, do you think, will be deserved by the one who has spurned the Son of God, and has profaned the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and has outraged the Spirit of grace? (30) For we know him who said, "Vengeance is mine; I will repay." And again, "The Lord will judge his people." (31) It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.

2007-01-20 01:25:39 · answer #4 · answered by Martin S 7 · 3 0

The bible states that men and women are not to divorce. There is some gender bias toward women in the bible. The first part that says anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery, simply states that a woman is of her husband forever. Even though she is divorced legally, she is still considered married to her ex husband. If anyone marries her, she is commiting adultery, because she is still married in the eyes of the Lord to the first husband. More than one man is sinful. Second part simply states that the wife is an adultress if she has already cheated on her husband, if she hasn't had affairs with other men, it is assumed that she will once the divorce goes through. The bible does not condone women to fool around since, it is a sin to do so without marriage. Overall, it is expected that a person marries once in their lifetime and only has that one particular sexual partner. The bible is against anything but one mate for life.

2007-01-20 01:20:05 · answer #5 · answered by 14 4 · 1 1

In the past I believed everything I read in the Bible. Then I discovered that the English translation was corrupted in 1611. So then I bought a Greek-Hebrew highlighted Bible. Then I discovered that in 325 AD, The Early Catholic Church corrupted a lot of the scrolls, threw out a lot of the Scrolls, (essenian scrolls were great), and twisted several verses to build and grow their religious empires.

So, For the last few years I have been studying the overall theme of the Bible, Jesus' messages, and the Holy Spirit. I discovered this:

Harmony is harmony.

Disharmony is the only sin against God.

Any verse that conflicts with this overall theme, is probably a corruption of God's word.

Matt 5:22 along With Leviticus (17?) were obvious corruptions.

Why? they conflict with the overall theme of Harmony.

Conclusion: It is not a sin to marry a divorced woman. (Some Bubba Preacher back in 325 AD probably added that to the Bible; so that his wife could have something to gossip about.)

2007-01-20 01:24:57 · answer #6 · answered by MrsOcultyThomas 6 · 0 2

My preacher at the church where I was raised (we thought Southern Baptist and Church of Christ were Liberal) used this very scripture and would not marry anyone that had been divorced. He refused to marry his daughter who married a man that had divorced his wife because the wife had an affair. She( the daughter) used this scripture to tell her dad that he could marry them, since her fiance's first wife had an affair, but he said that no matter what she would be living in sin if she married him. He thought folks that divorced and remarried were living in sin, but that God also didn't want them to spend their life alone... so in his view, this degree of sin was preferable to adultery. This is from the same preacher that said all sin was the same in the eyes of God. He was a walking Paradox... Anyway, I would not let Matthew's opinion make a difference on your relationship with the Almighty. God understands us a lot better than we or Matthew understand ourselves.

2007-01-20 01:25:24 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

This verse is a part of the Roman Catholic canon that forbids divorce. The only way a marriage may be disolved inder the Roman Catholic tradition is through annullment. An annullment requires either that the marriage was necer consumated, as in no sex between the partners, or that one or both partners have commited adultery, or had sex outside of the marriage. This verse does not clealy condone "fooling around".
By the way, an annullment in the Roman Catholic Church can be quite expensive and, in fact, often costs more than a civil divorce.

2007-01-20 01:19:48 · answer #8 · answered by fangtaiyang 7 · 0 2

I think it mean if the wife have an afair and the husband divorce her the other man should not married her. Because that is a sin.
But if she get a divorce for any other reason it I believe it okay especially if she was abuse and her husband cheated on her.



31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of a divorcement:
32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall aput away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

2007-01-20 01:15:54 · answer #9 · answered by Linda 7 · 1 1

As any Christian knows, God is against divorce. It is allowed only for two reasons. 1) Your spouse is unfaithful and 2) your spouse is abusive.

If you get a divorce for any other reason, then God considers you to be still married. Since he considers you still married, then if you get with someone else, then it is the same as adultery.

That is what this verse means.

PS - I Love that you added "please only answer if you have any reading comprehension skill at all". That cracked me up. :-)

2007-01-20 01:22:09 · answer #10 · answered by CassieKay 2 · 1 0

with due respect,if we all follow this wordings from the bible,there will be an unfairness and injustice to all man and woman in this land,we are now in the new era where we all strive and work to be equal with one another,we are trying to get rid of barriers of inequality,divorce laws were made so that people can live and start a new life without being tagged as mortal sinner or evil doers or worst,and its up to the persons involve if they want to follow the words from the bible and live a mesirable life,or forget Matt.5:32 and move on and start a new chapter of there life

2007-01-20 01:27:26 · answer #11 · answered by Lionel M 5 · 0 1

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