Wouldnt his condemnation by the jews of the era be considered a sacrifice in itself?
2007-01-20 00:14:29 · 13 answers · asked by Antares 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It makes no sense at all unless God is a psychopath.
I personally doubt that he is, so I see it as made up nonsense.
Love and blessings Don
2007-01-20 00:34:28 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was the the priest offering the sacrifice and the Sacrificial Lamb. He offered Himself for our sins and all sins. In the days of the Old and New testament sacrifices were done using unblemished, live animals. the animals were a bloody offering to God for atonement of sins. Jesus was God's offering to us as the last blood offering needed. He is the perfect sacrifice. The Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world.
2007-01-20 08:26:08 · answer #2 · answered by jesusfreak 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Just like the Old Testement people had to sacrifice the animals for their blood to get forgiveness, but the animals wasnt pure enough. Jesus was pure and thats why his blood had to be shed for the world to get forgivness. Without the shedding of blood there is no remission for sins.
2007-01-20 08:24:25 · answer #3 · answered by iwant_u2_wantme2000 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yeah I could see that but you have to understand that Jesus loved and he knew what his disciples were looking for because God always gave them prophets that showed them about the messiah.he knew he was following what was written of him and did it for the sake of his disciples.He said in a prayer in the 17th chapter of St John,I finished the work though gavest me to do before he hung on a cross.
As far as sacrifice Jesus said to obey is better than sacrifice.
God only requires obedience,Jesus being the word of God made flesh sacrificed for his brothers.
2007-01-20 08:28:55 · answer #4 · answered by jackiedj8952 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because according to the way story goes a destruction or surrender of something for the sake of something else had to take place. In this the life of Jesus for the life of others.
2007-01-20 08:38:02 · answer #5 · answered by Rowdy 1 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In order for Jesus to be “the last Adam” (1Co 15:45) and to be “a corresponding ransom for all [mankind],” his fleshly body had to be a real human body, no incarnation. (1Ti 2:5, 6; Mt 20:28) It had to be perfect, for it was to be sacrificed to present to Jehovah God the purchase price. (1Pe 1:18, 19; Heb 9:14) No imperfect human could provide the needed price. (Ps 49:7-9) For this reason Jesus said to his Father when presenting himself for baptism, to begin his sacrificial course: “You prepared a body for me.”—Heb 10:5.
2007-01-20 08:19:40 · answer #6 · answered by papa G 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Leviticus 17:11
For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that makes atonement for the soul.’
2007-01-20 08:25:12 · answer #7 · answered by what? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Heb 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
2007-01-20 08:21:09 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
What "fish" said plus, to prove that God does exist. By coming back alive 3 days later.
2007-01-20 08:19:41 · answer #9 · answered by Shari 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is the blood that purifies. Jesus had to shed His blood. Without that blood to cover our sins, we wouldn't stand a chance.
2007-01-20 08:18:17 · answer #10 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋