2007-01-19 18:41:59 · 24 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yes. Those who have actually READ the entire Bible know that. Those who are basing their beliefs on what a homophobic preacher says do not.
2007-01-19 18:44:46 · answer #1 · answered by gelfling 7 · 0⤊ 6⤋
Let's think about this for a moment...How did Sodom get it's name...could be because of sodomy (notice that the name of the city wasn't Inhospitableville)? Sodom and Gommorrah were noted for the prevelance of homosexuality. Homosexuality goes against God's arrangement of man and woman.
Many people think that homosexuality isn't so bad. If God were to allow this perverted world to go on much longer, people will begin to accept bestiality as normal too (some people already do).
The Bible clearly condemns homosexuality. God hates it.
1 Corinthians 6:9, 10 "men who lie with men...will [not] inherit God's kingdom".
2007-01-20 03:15:38 · answer #2 · answered by johnusmaximus1 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When you're dealing with Biblical texts, you have to deal with both language and cultural translations, sometimes through more than one language or culture.
Yes, it's thought that the people of those cities were destroyed for being inhospitable to strangers, but raping them doesn't seem to fit our current definition of inhospitality. It's equally possible that the fact that the citizens didn't accept Lot's daughters as a compromise was where the inhospitality came in.
2007-01-20 02:50:02 · answer #3 · answered by Mark S 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Those two cities had a lot wrong with them. Inhospitality would be one of those problems. But, certainly not the only one that would warrant a baptism of fire & brimstone.
2007-01-20 02:47:11 · answer #4 · answered by srprimeaux 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It all hinges on how the use of the Hebrew word "yadha" is to be interpreted in the context of the original Hebrew of Genesis 19. You be the Judge.
2007-01-20 03:25:30 · answer #5 · answered by neuroaster 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course... that's what the Bible SAYS.
The reason for Sodom's destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50. According to Ezekiel, the sins of Sodom were pride, laziness, being inhospitable, neglecting the needs of the poor, greed, and idolatry (the worshiping of idols).
The story of Sodom and Gomorrah was a warning against rape, inhospitality and xenophobia.
It didn't have anything to do with homosexuality. If Jude 1:7 describes anything about the sexual immorality and perversion in Sodom and Gomorrah, it's describing RAPE. It wasn't about "homosexuals wanting angels"... true "attraction" isn't part of rape. Rape is about power and humiliation. The sexually immoral men were RAPISTS; that's not synonymous with homosexuality.
2007-01-20 02:44:27 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 5⤋
No it was due to the sin of sodomy and inhospitality.
2007-01-20 02:52:47 · answer #7 · answered by carl 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Was destroyed as a warning to the Catholic CHurch to leave the Anti Christ system. Check Isaiah 13:9
Blessings
David T
2007-01-20 02:45:24 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 4⤋
Not at all. It was more about sexual immorality, excessive drinking, orgies, worshiping false gods, hypocrisy and many other sinful behaviors.
2007-01-20 02:50:04 · answer #9 · answered by Stormie~ 1 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Immorality.
2007-01-20 02:44:06 · answer #10 · answered by Lover of God 3 · 5⤊ 2⤋
It was destroyed because there was no holy or righteous person there, except Lott and his family, whom God did not destroy. . . . . So there, Christians do have a loving God!
2007-01-20 02:47:35 · answer #11 · answered by lady_blu_iz 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋