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2007-01-19 15:00:25 · 7 answers · asked by missmayzie 7 in Arts & Humanities Genealogy

7 answers

Yes, If they lived in the South and were wealthy enough to afford them. A field hand in the 1840's cost about $10,000.00 in their dollars and that is the low end of the scale, Read Gone with the Wind by Margret Mitchell to see an example.

2007-01-19 15:06:02 · answer #1 · answered by redgriffin728 6 · 0 0

Okay I am a little disturbed by some of the answers I read. If you were wealthy and needed things done it didn't matter if you were an immigrant or if you lived in the North or the South, you had a slave or two and some had many more. It is very unfortunate that the majority were treated very badly and I glad that it ended. However, a lot of people seem to forget that the North had slaves too.

2007-01-24 02:27:00 · answer #2 · answered by chloebell 1 · 0 1

Some immmigrants were slave owners. Mostly if you look at the slave owners by name, they seem to be English, Scotch, French.
Some other ethnicities appear by name, but not nearly as many.
You have to also consider that the massive influx of immigrants to the United States from Germany started after the civil war.
So, almost all immigrant groups owned slaves including in a few instances free blacks in the South. Not widely spoken of, but there were blacks who owned slaves.

2007-01-19 15:07:23 · answer #3 · answered by Lt. Dan reborn 5 · 0 0

Of course. All sorts of people owned slaves, immigrants, Indians, probably other slaves.

2007-01-19 15:15:45 · answer #4 · answered by Mike D. 3 · 0 0

Yes they did, even some freed blacks owned slaves. The entire economy was based on the slave labor pool. If you wanted to compete in business you hadn't much choice.....sorry to say

2007-01-19 15:08:10 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Sure, some were. Some were almost slaves themselves.

2007-01-19 15:03:29 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

some

2007-01-21 14:56:32 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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