Is this a contradiction?

Question

GE 19:30-38 While he is drunk, Lot's two daughters "lie with him," become pregnant, and give birth to his offspring.
2PE 2:7 Lot was "just" and "righteous."
RO 3:10, 3:23, 1JN 1:8-10 No one was or is righteous.

Now first I've been drunk, in fact soooo drunk that I've passed out on hard floors, and made out with some suspect girls, but never drunk enough to sleep with family members so don't blame it on the booze.

I have a few hundred more of these here if you're in an answering mood, please copy and paste them and answer them one by one if you want:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AtCDO_Xda6R7yj0wNO0.0m_sy6IX?qid=20070111153540AAeOpbE&show=7#profile-info-998232e8a7b9a54f11f14161d1252656aa

What context, did it say "Lot was just and righteous before he slept with his daughters" Or "No man is righteous, except for all the ones mentioned as righteous before this right here"

And ME taking it out of context hahahaha

"Now, if you have instances of OT verses that seemingly contradict, we can discuss those."

Feel free to click the link, I'm sure there's some there.

Answer 1

Lot and his two daughters were the only persons to survive the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah. After this destruction they began residing in the city of Zoar. However, for some reason Lot was afraid to continue dwelling there and, with his daughters, took up residence in a cave. (Gen. 19:30) Thereafter the firstborn said to her younger sister: “Our father is old and there is not a man in the land to have relations with us according to the way of the whole earth. Come, let us give our father wine to drink and let us lie down with him and preserve offspring from our father.”—Gen. 19:31, 32.

The fact that they sought to get their father intoxicated suggests that they realized he would never have consented to having sexual relations with them in a sober state. But under the circumstances, they felt that this was the only way to prevent the extinction of Lot’s family. They were aliens in the land and there was no one of their kindred with whom they could enter into marriage and thus preserve the family line. It should also be remembered that Lot’s daughters had resided among the morally debased inhabitants of Sodom. In view of these factors, it would not have been difficult for them to justify their course of action in their own minds.

Why, then, is Lot called a “righteous man,” at 2 Peter 2:8? Not because God approved of his getting drunk, nor because God approved of incest. God did not approve such conduct. But it should be noted that there is nothing in the record to indicate that Lot was a habitual drunkard, nor was he habitually involved in acts of incest. His reputation was that of a “righteous man,” and this reputation he had with God, who examines the heart. Lot deplored the “lawless deeds” of the people of Sodom. And, evidently, for the Examiner of hearts to view him as righteous, Lot must also have grieved over the wrong conduct in which he himself got involved.

The inclusion of the information about Lot and his daughters in the Scriptural record should really help us to appreciate that the Bible is a book of truth. Even when persons who were known as God’s servants became involved in improper acts, the Bible does not conceal this. However, at all times such things are recounted, not to entertain or to stimulate a desire to indulge in immoral conduct, but to provide a background for understanding other events.

No contradiction here.

Answer 2

Genesis 19:30-38 - No sin here - this predated the law of the covenant.

2 Peter 2:7 - Lot was just and righteous simply because he believed in God and listened to him. God had mercy on him and his family and allowed him to leave Sodom.

Romans - Righteous is not of themselves or by their works. But by faith. Why not show the whole chapter instead of these little clips. Anyone can take a clip or two and make it sound like something else...

You can do better than that... come on now.


*** update ***

This thumbs down thing is interesting. I point out that the seemingly contradictory verse are really not a contradiction and I get a thumbs down. Maybe I should have said, yep, you're right. Burn em all! Then I would have gotten a thumbs up. Very interesting how that molds the answers to some questions...

Answer 3

The Lord said that He would save Sodom and Gomorrah if there were just ten righteous, but there were not.
So the Angel of the Lord sent Lot out of Sodom so that he could seek safety in Zoar.
So God must have thought Lot was righteous enough to spare.
I have no disagreement with that.

You have to put these things in context, this was 2100 years before Christ.
At that time God had not given any laws.

Since this was pre-law and Lot was saved from the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah, I think Peter was right.

As to Romans 3:10; This was written after the law was given.
As to Romans 3:23; The glory of God is His Son, so we have all fallen short of doing what Jesus would do.
As to 1John 1:8-10; This was written after the law was given.

grace2u

Answer 4

If you take key words back to their original meaning, for Old Testament it is Hebrew for New Testament it is Greek, you will find that they do not have the EXACT same meaning. Additionally, the King James scholars hit a few stumbling blocks as they attempted to break down and interpret the complicated words from their original text to English. I admit there are some places in the bible that theologians today have found were misinterpreted or misstated. That is why you can't just read the bible. It must be studied. You have to get the interpretation from the original text to make sure you really have it correct. Additionally, if you do not currently have a personal relationship with God whereby you have accepted Jesus Christ as Lord and Savior, you do not have the Holy Spirit within you to help guide you through the interperetations. THERE ARE NO CONTRADICTIONS in the bible. Study it for yourself but just know that if you earnestly seek God's word for interperatation you might end up receiving the revelation of Christ. At that moment you will have no other choice but to accept Him because your heart and spirit will not be able to deny it!!

Answer 5

Lot passed out and his daughters had sex with him, but he knew it not.

A person is not righteous on their own, so lot must have feared God, and is so called righteous.

Being righteous (just like being saved) does not mean that one never sins again. Lot sinned by getting drunk. Maybe he lost his salvation at that time, but even if he did not, he still had to repent of getting drunk (and not teaching his daughters better).

Answer 6

Did you ever read that passage completely? back in the day, a man that didn't have a son was considered dead bloodline. His daughters wanted him to have descentants, so they made him drunk enough to not know who he was sleeping with. Both got pregnant with the sole intention of giving their father a boy or two.

Problem with you immature kids reading the bible is that you only take fragments and interpretate them as you want. Is why Martin Luther made a HUGE mistake by making the bible graspable to the ignorant average joe. Back in the day only theosofists with YEARS of study could interpretate it.

Answer 7

First of all. I am a Christian who doesn't believe or care about all that made up story book stuff in the old testament,

second. I don't care if this fellow slept with anyone,why should I?I don't care who you have slept with.

third .I only care and learn and try to do what Jesus said to do, one of which is to have love in my heart,and accept the spirit of God into me and ask of it and listen for the answers and all that.

Fourth; lot of things in the bible contradict themselves.
such as Jesus said that all that call on Christs name will be saved
then later he said only those that do my fathers will. will make it to heaven






I have gotten drink before.Like you have and made love.aint that.fun.i have stopped drinking a lot though and now will only have sex with a mate.

But each person goes his or her on way in life, its not up to me to judge or anything like that. God knows your heart

I do wish you the best on your spiritual journey though


Peace

Answer 8

The Bible is notorious for exposing the shortcomings of man. That is for a reason. When we read about their shortcomings, it is a guide for us, and also, it reveals to us how much God loves us, despite our shortcomings. Lot had many shortcomings, as did David, Samson, Moses, on and on.

But, God used them anyway. That tells us that no matter how much we have messed up, God will still use us if we turn to Him.

You, after you are saved, are righteous in God. You are not righteous on your own accord.

If you think you are, then that term would be "self righteous."

The NT was saying no one is righteous on his own accord.

But, when you are saved, and your sins are washed away, you become righteous in God's eyes, and ONLY through Jesus Christ.

No one is righteous on their own. That's what Romans was referring to -- "self righteousness."

Answer 9

I would like to know how Lot impregnating his two daughters and then being labeled just and righteous can be put into a context where that's okay.

)O(

Answer 10

As the Greek Scriptures (Christian NT) is a contradiction the Hebrew Scriptures (Christian OT) in its very nature and existence, one cannot use NT verses as refutations of OT, especially when so many verses within the NT contradicts itself.

Now, if you have instances of OT verses that seemingly contradict, we can discuss those.