in bible verse 14:15 31 doesn't it refer to holy spirit as pronoun (him). How can this be if it is spirit, it should be refered to with pronoun (it). this backs up the fact that prophet muhammad(pbuh) is the one who was mention in this verse.
2007-01-17 22:21:13 · 16 answers · asked by sam 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
mawkish, arehow is that possible, how was jesus begotten then and was the father there and jesus is mentioning him as sperate entity?
2007-01-17 22:30:07 · update #1
niguay, yes we believe that holy ghost is gabriel, but christians do not, and we are refering to Bible not Quan. We contend that this portion of Bible attests to the fact that it has been altered.
2007-01-18 04:44:42 · update #2
The controversy on the word for Comforter/Advocate used in the Bible, John 14 & 16, for the Holy Spirit. While the Greek manuscripts have paraclete, paracletos, meaning "one who comes along side", some Muslims argue that the word should be periklutos, meaning "Praised One", which in Arabic is Ahmad, which Muslims take to be Muhammad. There is a direct reference to "Ahmad" in the Quran, surah as-Saff 61:6, and so Muslims find periklutos appealing because then a prophecy of Muhammad can be deduced from the Bible.
The problem, however, is that there is not a shred of evidence in support of this theory, and the thousands of NT manuscripts predating Islam all do not have periklutos. Christians and all extant manuscripts have all confirmed that the word is paraclete as it stands. Early testimonies of Muslims testify that the Bible's paraclete is correct, see AHMAD
* The quotes from the Bible concerning the Paraclete:
"And I will pray the Father, and he will give you another Comforter, to be with you for ever, even the Spirit of Truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees him nor knows him; you know him, for he dwells with you, and will be in you". (John 14:16-17)
"But the Comforter, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you". (John 14:26)
"But when the Comforter comes, whom I shall send you from the Father, even the Spirit of Truth, who proceeds from the Father, he will bear witness to me". (John 15:26)
"Nevertheless I tell you the truth: it is to your advantage that I go away, for if I do not go away, the Comforter will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you". (John 16:7)
In fact, the context of the verses also do not support periklutos, as shown below. If Comforter refers to Muhammad, then we also have to accept
that Muhammad is the Holy Spirit in John 14:26, contradicting Muslim belief that the Holy Spirit is the angel Gabriel,
that Jesus sends Muhammad in (John 15:26 and 16:7) and
that Jesus sends Muhammad in Jesus' name,
that Muhammad dwells with the disciples forever. (John 14:16-17). Not only is Muhammad too late by 600 years, he can't dwell with them forever. The argument that the truth, law given by Muhammad will be with them forever is spurious of course, since they never receive it.
that the disciples of Jesus know Muhammad. (John 14:16-17).
all of which are unthinkable to a Muslim. If it is periklutos, then this passage must also mean a previous "praised one", and one has no clue as to who this previous "praised one" was. Jesus was never given such a title, indeed no person in the Qur'an was. Further, the literal meaning will be that "He will give you another Ahmad".
* Some Muslims have argued that because the Bible uses the pronoun "he" when used with "Comforter" and "it" when use with "Holy Spirit", therefore, these two are not the same:
''XXX makes the point that when Jesus speaks of a "Comforter," he uses the pronoun "he," but when John the Baptist speaks of seeing the Holy Spirit descending on Jesus, he uses the pronoun "it." But "Comforter" translates the Greek PARAKLETOS, which is a masculine noun, and therefore takes a masculine pronoun, while "Spirit" translates the Greek PNEUMA, which is neuter, and therefore takes a neuter pronoun. The gender of a noun in English normally reflects the sex (or lack of it) of what the noun refers to (with a few exceptions, such as that ships and other vehicles, and bells, and countries, are commonly called "she"). But this is not true in some other languages. In German, for example, the words WEIB (woman) and FRAEULEIN and MAEDCHEN (unmarried woman, young girl) are all neuter, and take neuter adjectives and neuter pronouns. In my first Latin class, the teacher asked for a translation of "The sword is sharp; I have it," and got the answer, "Gladius acer est; id habeo." She said, "That's wrong," to the bafflement of the class, who could not see an error in it. Finally she asked, "What gender is 'gladius'?" At this point, someone said, "Aha! it should be 'EUM habeo' -- 'I have HIM'." And this was right. GLADIUS, being masculine, takes the masculine pronoun.
Accordingly, no conclusion can be drawn from the fact that Jesus, (or at any rate his Greek translator), using the word PARAKLETOS, uses a masculine pronoun, or that John the Baptist, using the word PNEUMA, uses a neuter pronoun.'' (James Kiefer)
2007-01-17 22:34:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
The Comforter is the Holy Spirit. Muhammed is not the Lord, as mentioned in Deuteronomy. The koran is in no way, never has been nor ever will be the same as the Bible. There is nothing in the Bible mentioning or prophesying Muhammed. Muhammed was just a guy who was mad at the corruption he saw - or at least, his perception of corruption. The same thing happened with Joseph Smith who started Mormonism - those two have a lot in common. Both didn't like what they were seeing, decided to start their own thing and even wrote their own books (both of which are contrary to Biblical scriptures) and claimed they had true revelation from God.
2016-05-24 02:49:13 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Pretty much all of the Bible verses that mention God refer to him with a masculine pronoun and with masculine adjectives.
Hebrew tradition describes God as a spirit, not a person or being. The Hebrew language preserves the very old idea that the wind was actually believed to be the movements of God, and everything that the wind touched was touched by God.
So the "spirit of God" and "God" can be thought of as interchangeable. It's natural that the writings refer to this spirit as "him" and "he".
You know, you just can't rewrite the Bible. Mohammed was never mentioned in it, and it's dishonest on your part to put him there.
Why would you want to disgrace your own religion with lies? Don't you value the truth?
2007-01-17 22:29:37 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, it is not referring to muhammad. Go on to read John 16:5-16
It also said in John 7:39 " By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in Him were later to receive. Up to that time the Spirit had not been given, since Jesus had not yet been glorified."
2007-01-17 22:35:25 · answer #4 · answered by tracy211968 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You muslums will try anything, The spirit of truth is not Mohhammed, But The Holy Ghost, It is the comforter, The spirit of God in us with measure. Jesus even said that he will send the comforter to us & it came to those 120 in the upper Room on the day of Pentacost, the only place in the bible that it will talk about mohhamed is where we are warned about False Prophets,
2007-01-17 22:30:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hi!
The reason why the Holy Spirit is addressed is a "He" is because, He is a Person.A person is either a He or a She,...but in this case the nature of God is Male, you cannot make Him a lady...
A lady came because there was man...Adam was made to sleep and God took a rib out of him and formed the body of a woman...
When the God of Jesus Christ created man, He gave it His best shot...even with all the beauty that is in man, God could not create something as good as He is...There is none like Him.
God bless you.
2007-01-17 22:34:54 · answer #6 · answered by Hope Dollar 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Holy Spirit is part of the holy trinity, which is considered to be three persons (one god-head). In that sence, the Holy Spirit is personified as a 'he' (as is traditional to assume masculinity).
Where is the prophet muhammad in that verse? Shall I assume that every undefined 'he' is Muhammad? That makes no sence!
PS: The verse is useless without telling us which book it is in!
2007-01-17 22:25:33 · answer #7 · answered by Mawkish 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
nope....all 3 persons of the "Holy Trinity" are referred to as "Him".
In the begining, when God created man, he said let US make him in OUR own image.....(HOW?) Compare that to water...3 states, Gas, Liquid, Solid...yet all the same. Muhammad was NOT in this picture. or in the Bible for that matter.
2007-01-17 22:29:14 · answer #8 · answered by brainiac 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it does, just like Jack (pbuh) and the beanstalk prove that Little Red Riding Hood was a true story. get OVER THE MYTHS!
2007-01-17 22:25:37 · answer #9 · answered by Shawn M 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you believe so, then stick to it and no body can robb you that belief! As simple as that! You can also read the Bible of Barnabas!
2007-01-17 22:29:55 · answer #10 · answered by Ebby 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋