What could this mean? My friend had a brain MRI done ("...with and without contrast"). And that was the result. What do you know about those findings. What does that mean. The doctor was dismissive about it, my friend said, telling him "..you should not worry about it", and then changed the conversation.
My friend says there is some history of Alzheimer's in his family, but he's not sure if it is an isolated case only.
Is there a definite link between those finding and Alzheimer's? Could that "atrophy" get reversed either w intervention of some sort or by itself?
I would really appreciate a any input from someone educated/professional in a related field of study. Anyone?
2007-01-17 18:46:05 · 3 answers · asked by poecilia.r.lvr 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Medicine
What that means is that there appears the brain doesn't fill up the braincase as much as average, and it looks a bit shrunken on the pictures. It might be associated with a dementia like Alzheimer's, but we're talking about an impression on viewing the films, and it's far more likely that it's normal but looks half off. We're talking tiny differences in perception here, not reality. If the doctor dismissed it, he meant to dismiss it. A problem with modern imaging studies is that they often give too much information. Tests are only useful insofar as they help the clinician, and you still do better to place your faith in the hands and brain of the physican rather than in technology.
2007-01-18 02:00:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No Acute Intracranial Process
2017-01-19 14:23:30 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well, now that you have a real answer, no need for mine. :)
though i still wish you the best of luck.
2007-01-17 20:25:20 · answer #3 · answered by melon_rose 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋