2007-01-17 07:12:28 · 19 answers · asked by Ahsan M 1 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Jokes & Riddles
let a = b
a² = ab
Multiply both sides by a
a² + a² - 2ab = ab + a² - 2ab
Add (a² - 2ab) to both sides
2(a² - ab) = a² - ab
Factor the left, and collect like terms on the right
2 = 1
Divide both sides by (a² - ab)
2007-01-17 07:15:54 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
solve for 1
0+1=2
answer 1=2
2007-01-17 15:16:57 · answer #2 · answered by therernonameleft 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋
It's not possible, however you can get a bit of fun with your friends with this:
x = y
xy = y², then reversing...
-xy = -y², then adding x² on each side..
x² - xy = x² -y², then factorizing...
x (x - y) = (x + y)(x - y), taking out the (x - y) component
x = x + y, but x=y...
x = x+ x = 2x â x = 2x, then you can take out the "x"
â 1 = 2
the error is factorizing (x-y) because you can not factorize a zero!!!!!!!!
2007-01-17 15:14:35 · answer #3 · answered by careduro 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
when 2 of something equal 1 of something else, then 2=1
ie 2socks = 1 pair
2 five $ bills = 1 ten $ bill
2007-01-17 15:15:30 · answer #4 · answered by HeadAche 3 · 3⤊ 1⤋
No, because it doesn't, but I can prove that 1+1= 0,1,2,3,4, and sometimes more physiologically. But that is another category! :D
2007-01-17 15:19:30 · answer #5 · answered by MtnManInMT 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
two halves =1
2007-01-17 15:18:21 · answer #6 · answered by Todd C 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When 1 is pregnant?
2007-01-17 15:15:37 · answer #7 · answered by Nancy O 3 · 4⤊ 1⤋
e^(i * 2 pi) = e^(i * 4 pi)
i * 2 pi = i * 4 pi
2 = 4
1 = 2
2007-01-17 15:20:33 · answer #8 · answered by Andrew 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. The only way I have seen it done is with a formula that divides by zero which is undefined.
2007-01-17 15:15:07 · answer #9 · answered by Barkley Hound 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
no one can prove that......... because 1 DOES NOT = 2 as you ask in your question sorry
2007-01-17 15:15:29 · answer #10 · answered by KTINA 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋