The Bible does not agree with the view that Jesus and the evildoer went to heaven on the day that Jesus spoke to him. Jesus had foretold that (as was mentioned by another answerer) after his being killed, he would not be raised up until the third day (Luke 9:22). During that 3-day period, he was not in heaven, because following his resurrection, he told Mary Magdelene: "I have not yet ascended to the Father" (John 20:17). It was 40 days after his resurrection that his disciples saw him lifted up from the earth and out of their sight as he began his ascent to heaven (Acts 1:3, 6-11).
The evildoer did not meet the requirements to go to heaven even at some later time. He was not "born again" - not baptized in water or in holy spirit and holy spirit was not poured out on Jesus' annointed disciples until some 50 days after his death (John 3: 3,5; Acts 2:1-4). On the day of his death, Jesus had made a covenant for a heavenly kingdom with those "who had stuck with him in his trials" (Luke 22:28-30). The evildoer had no record of such faithfulness and was not included in the covenant.
Daniel 7:13,14 points to a time when Christ would rule as king over all the earth. The bible speaks of a restoration of a paradise earth.
One's understanding of Luke 23:43 is influenced by the punctuation used by the translator. There was no punctuation in the original Greek manuscripts. The Encyclopedia Americana (1956 Vol XXIII p. 16) states: "No attempt to punctuate is apparent in the earlier manuscripts and inscriptions of the Greeks". Not until the 9th century CE did such punctuation come into use. Should Luke 23:43 read: "Truly I say to you, today you will be with me in Paradise."? or should it be "Truly I say to you today, you will be with me in Paradise.?" The TEACHINGS OF CHRIST AND THE REST OF THE BIBLE must be the basis for determination and not a comma inserted in the text centuries after Jesus said those words.
German Bible Translator L. Reinhardt agrees with the The New World Translation's punctuation of the verse "Truly I say to you today, you will be with me in Paradise.?", saying:
The punctuation presently used by [most translaters] in this verse is undoubtedly false and contradictory to the entire way of thinking of Christ and his evildoer...[Christ] certainly did not understand paradise to be a subdivision of the realm of the dead, but rather the restoration of a paradise on earth."
When would Jesus 'get into his kingdom' and fulfill his Father's purpose to make the earth a paradise? The book of Revelation (written 60+ years later) indicates that these events were still in the future.
2007-01-17 04:08:24
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answer #1
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answered by krobin 2
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Jesus rose from the dead on the third day after crucifixtion to sit at the right hand of God, the Father. In the New Testament of the Concordia NIV, Paradise is translated as "the place of bliss and rest between death and resurrection." Jesus was not in Hades.
2007-01-17 11:45:44
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answer #2
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answered by Anji 4
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Well im pretty sure your gonna get the " Jesus is god so he can be more then one place at a time" but thats just a rationalization and an excuse for a flaw. Also what about mark 4 when Jesus says that the Mustard Seed is the smallest seed on earth when anyone who knows better knows this is clearly incorrect...so if Jesus was really God or the son of God im sure he would know that.
# If anyone doesn't think that he really said that then read the Ancient hebrew/greek version. he Says smallest.
2007-01-17 11:38:02
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The Bible says that Jesus was in the grave(Hades) for 3 days... His body... it also says that He spoke to Spirits in Prison "Tartarus" (His Spirit. It doesnt say that His spirit spent all of the 3 days speaking to the spirits in prison so, why could He not have been in paradise in those 3 days too? If I can visit more than one place in 3 days, why can't Jesus?
2007-01-17 11:38:47
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answer #4
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answered by impossble_dream 6
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Luke 23:43 (New International Version)
Jesus answered him, "I tell you the truth, today you will be with me in paradise."
Because use Jesus was both man and God. So the thief would be with God in Paradise that day.
2007-01-17 11:42:06
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answer #5
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answered by lady_blu_iz 4
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Some bible translations use incorrect grammar in this situation. As you mentioned, it would be impossible for the repentant theif to be in paradise that very day. It should read:
"I tell you this very day, you willl be with me in Paradise"
"This very day" refers to Jesus telling him this on that day, but he will be with Jesus in paradise in the future.
2007-01-17 11:39:45
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answer #6
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answered by nomad48318 1
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Because he was also in Heaven at the time. He is everywhere.
Also, I just read the "mustard seed" thing. Jesus was explaining what was probably the smallest seed they had at the time, or, would ever see.
2007-01-17 11:37:59
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Maybe that Jesus knew that he would be in paradise with him eventually? I don't know.
It's probably a translation thing.
2007-01-17 11:36:54
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answer #8
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answered by I'm Still Here 5
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Jesus committed His spirit into His Father's hands. He went to be with His Father.
2007-01-17 11:43:45
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answer #9
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answered by srprimeaux 5
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Dont be Dumb its just a fiqure of speach saying The Thief will be in Paradise.today and He will be with Jeusus.
2007-01-17 11:45:30
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answer #10
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answered by TULSA 4
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