Slavery was permitted in the Bible because of sin in the world. It existed before the Jews were formed as a nation and it existed after Israel was conquered. God allows many things to happen in the world such as storms, famine, murder, etc. Slavery, like divorce, is not preferred by God. Instead, it is allowed. Where many nations treated their slaves very badly, the Bible gave many rights and privileges to slaves. So, even though it isn't the best way to deal with people, because God has allowed man freedom, slavery then exists. God instructed the Israelites to treat them properly.
The Bible acknowledged the slave’s status as the property of the master (Ex. 21:23; Lev. 25:46),
The Bible restricted the master’s power over the slave. Ex. 21:20).
The slave was a member of the master’s household (Lev. 22:11)
The slave was required to rest on the Sabbath (Exodus 20:10; Deut. 5:14)
The slave was required and to participate in religious observances (Gen. 17:13; Exodus 12:44; Lev. 22:11).
The Bible prohibited extradition of slaves and granted them asylum (Deut. 23:16-17).
The servitude of a Hebrew debt-slave was limited to six years (Ex. 21:2; Deut. 15:12).
When a slave was freed, he was to receive gifts that enabled him to survive economically (Deut. 15:14)
The reality of slavery cannot be denied. Slaves were "slave labor played a minor economic role in the ancient Near East, for privately owned slaves functioned more as domestic servants than as an agricultural or industrial labor force."1
2007-01-17 01:53:44
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The problem people have when discussing how the Bible addresses slavery is that we look at slavery through what we know today (Civil War era, modern sweat shops, etc). We have to look at it in the context of the Biblical culture.
Slavery during this time was almost like a job. The Old Testament allowed for people to work off debts by being a slave. However, during the Year of Jubilee slaves were given the option to be released. Many of them would choose to stay because they were treated well, taken care of, and could raise a family. The same was true during the time of Christ. Slavery was a part of the economy. It was almost like a welfare system for those who couldn't pay their debts or find jobs. Christ came to change the hearts of men, not the economy.
It is true that some slaves were treated badly. This is why when the issue is addressed, slave owners were commanded to treat slaves with the same respect that they would treat another Christian. It wasn't until later that slaves become viewed as property instead as a person that Christians rose up and said that this was no longer Biblical.
2007-01-17 10:02:58
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answer #2
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answered by mark777 2
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The Bible doesn't forbid slavery, but like you said, it forbids the mistreatment of slaves. In those times and time's after, people couldnt just go out and get jobs and there were very few jobs to have even if you could, so it was very common for poor families to sell a family member into slavery, which would provide food and shelter for the family member and also money, food and/or livestock to the family selling them. People were not supposed to oppress, beat or mistreat the slaves, they were to be treated fairly and it wasnt too much unlike modern day employment.
It is illegal now adays and the Bible teaches us to obey the laws of the land. NOT owning slaves doesnt insult God so we (Christians) certainly dont mind upholding that law.
2007-01-17 09:59:39
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answer #3
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answered by impossble_dream 6
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i agree w fourmorebeer's. it reflects the morality of its time. although the bible does not forbid slavery it does is adamant on pointing out every person should be treated in a just and merciful way. so, you see, despite nowadays slavery is considered to be a most horrid thing, it wasn't bad for ancient cultures around the world.
2007-01-17 09:56:56
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answer #4
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answered by mina 2
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If you read Philemon. I do not think that the Bible looks favorably on it. Paul talks about treating Onesimus (a slave) as he would Paul (a Roman citizen) and as a brother. It was such a part of the culture. You have to read the Bible in context. Not only verse in context but also in a culture context as well.
I would say that many of the master/slave verse are now applicable to the employer/employee relationship.
2007-01-17 09:52:31
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answer #5
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answered by icthyus05 3
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It reflects the morality of its times, and slavery has only become immoral very very recently in some parts of the world.
2007-01-17 09:50:09
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answer #6
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answered by fourmorebeers 6
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No, actually, it does not. However, masters were to treat their slaves with respect as a human being.
Much like I'm a corporate slave of capitalism... They still have treat me decent but I'm still a slave and not entirely free (from debut! ack!)
Slavery in the case of America... well, that will take a long while to explain.
Simple answer, they weren't treated well in general.
2007-01-17 09:52:11
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answer #7
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answered by Emperor Insania Says Bye! 5
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Jesus said that "the laws which you [Jews] were given were given in relation to the understanding capable at the time." He also said that, being God's messenger, that all laws were essentially null and void.
You can say that Jesus was basically the Windows Millenium version of what had previously been Windows OT. When you update the software, some things are the same, but pretty much everything is done differently to achieve similar results.
2007-01-17 09:56:14
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answer #8
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answered by Khnopff71 7
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Nope- Scripture doesn't care about slavery as long as the followers are not the slaves.
2007-01-17 09:52:02
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Well, God says to love your neighbor as yourself and do unto others as you would have them do to you. Therefore, if you wouldn't want to be a slave or sell yourself into slavery, then it is immoral to own slaves.
2007-01-17 09:51:19
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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