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I'm learning English.
I read a textbook called "Family Ablum USA".

In the book, Richard tells alaxthander that his father's a doctor.
then alaxthander meet Richard's father hours later and say "Richard tells me you're a doctor".
why doesn't she say "Richard told me you're a doctor"?

why tells, but not told? didn't it happen in the past?

2007-01-16 12:23:46 · 3 answers · asked by coner_in 1 in Society & Culture Languages

3 answers

Either would be grammatically correct, but this form is friendlier, as it gives the impression that Richard often speaks of his father and is very proud to mention the fact that he is a doctor when he does so.

There is something cold and factual about the past tense, correct though it is.

2007-01-18 03:10:46 · answer #1 · answered by Doethineb 7 · 0 0

Yes it did happen in the past. However, we sometimes say "tells" when we are not talking about a particular instance. So if she said "Richard told me today that you're a doctor" she would use the past tense. But "tells" is more vague, it could have happened at any time, or even multiple times over a period of time. Because it may have happened more than once, indicating a continuous action, people started saying "tells" and it became acceptable. I hope this helps.

You're English is very good by the way.

2007-01-16 12:32:31 · answer #2 · answered by magpie_queen 3 · 2 0

I think it's more common in conversation, not formal writing.

2007-01-16 12:35:16 · answer #3 · answered by fickle™ 5 · 2 0

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