2007-01-15 20:09:20 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
If he has a widow, then he must be dead.
2007-01-15 20:54:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think there should be no reason for it to be illegal. After all she is not blood related.
In fact, such marriages are encouraged as if the person has any children, what better person to care than the aunty.
In family that are rich, they would rather marry an inside person that is not related by blood to an outsider ( not willing to share the wealth, property or inheritance.
Good Luck
2007-01-16 04:18:46 · answer #2 · answered by sonisunny 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Read your question again & again to find (khoj) out the strange mistake (or mystery...) in the same. One's wife shall be widow when one dies and how could a dead man marry?
2007-01-16 04:21:10 · answer #3 · answered by sharma.kulbhushan 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Haha. No. If his wife is a widow, that means he is dead.
2007-01-16 04:12:45 · answer #4 · answered by bashnick 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it is illegal to marry anyone who is dead in every state. . .maybe not in Mass. but everywhere else. . .maybe not in California, now that I think about it. LOL
2007-01-16 04:14:59 · answer #5 · answered by PartyTime 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Don't you mean sister-in-law? They really aren't related so Yes he can. It is not illegal in any state.
2007-01-16 04:22:08 · answer #6 · answered by LM 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Not unless necrophelia is now legal!! That's sick. ; )
2007-01-16 04:19:13 · answer #7 · answered by Sydney 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i donot think so
2007-01-16 04:15:02 · answer #8 · answered by dimple 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh God!!!!!!!!
How many Ques. will u ask??????????
2007-01-16 04:45:19 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is no good. it is ilegal
2007-01-16 04:22:22 · answer #10 · answered by MANISH J 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋