URGENT S1 exam in a few hrs..
2007-01-15 17:34:10 · 4 answers · asked by Pichka 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Yes it can... Say for example it's negative... Not symnnetric ok? So they're not all the same... Come on man...I'm runnin out of time..
2007-01-15 17:58:16 · update #1
Sorry, only just read the question. I think what you're looking for is a general rule of thumb, there may not even be a mode.
If positively skewed, mode
This is because if it is positively skewed the the bulk of the data is in the lower half of the distribution which means that extreme values are pushing the mean up. Obviously it is the opposite if negatively skewed. The median, however, is likely to remain unaffected.
Good luck if it's not too late.
2007-01-15 21:50:03 · answer #1 · answered by saljegi 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the standard deviation! The smaller the SD, the less the skew. The mean, mode and median can all be the same if the SD is zero (ie all terms are identical), so this question can't really be answered without a data set.
2007-01-15 17:48:47 · answer #2 · answered by teachbio 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the propose, median and mode are all measures for describing how scores clusters mutually. they're 3 distinct measures for the centre of a series of scores. so as that they are observed as 'measures of ordinary tendency' propose = sum of the scores divided by potential of the style of scores median is the middle score after the scores are arranged so as mode is the score that takes place the main i'm hoping this facilitates
2016-12-13 08:25:57 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
mean is the numerical average of all the results
median is that result which is physically in the centre of the spread of results
mode is the most common result
largest is dependent on sample size and range, (usually mode)
2007-01-15 18:33:31 · answer #4 · answered by john k 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋