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...since we are all hypocrites at times...

Just wondering...

2007-01-15 13:13:02 · 7 answers · asked by Susie 6 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

7 answers

Since hypocrisy has got to do with putting on a facade, an act, etc, as someone has already quoted for us. I think its more interesting to think about the fact that when we call someone a hypocrite, the person's facade is blown and we see his/her true self and so that person could be said to be a lousy actor. And in theory, when you expose someone's "act" in open like that, you should be considered morally upright and not hypocritical.

However, it could indeed be hypocritical to call someone a hypocrite, because by calling others one, we ourselves seem to be putting up a claim that we are not, that we do not condone such acts. Yet the fact is, as you have pointed out, we are all hypocritical in different situations and times, and thus we become hypocritical ourselves.

So yes, I do think it would be hypocritical. Hmm.. am I being hypocritical now? Maybe this are the kind of questions we have no answers for, don't you think?

2007-01-15 18:49:26 · answer #1 · answered by cassaliciousinsanity 2 · 0 0

Hypocrisy is the act of pretending or claiming to have beliefs, feelings, morals or virtues that one does not truly possess or practice. So no, if you truthfully called someone a hypocrite you could not be committing hypocrisy.

2007-01-15 14:31:42 · answer #2 · answered by barswhereami 2 · 1 2

Sometimes, calling someone a name such as this, is nothing more than reporting. If you call a wife-beater a wife beater you are not being judgmental you are simply making an accurate observation.

2007-01-15 14:22:37 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

nicely it type of feels we've both made assumptions about one yet another. i do not dispute that sources possession (and legal contracts commonly) is in accordance with actual rigidity. it really is what those type of debates will continually boil right down to isn't it? someone's' own idea of sources norms? i might want to contend that some type of specific legal possession framework is needed for any civilization. All organisms on earth are territorial and having that specific legal framework of sources possession is what we human beings do to maintain away from a warfare of all hostile to all. it truly is my putting out element. i might want to however propose that there favor not be a one length matches all frame of mind to sources norms because we are purely speaking about an summary idea of possession that, like each and every values, are subjective. in this particular case we are speaking about the sources norms of the society we take position to were born into. in case you somewhat favor to entice close the position i imagine the source of the probability of tangible rigidity comes from, its the state itself, who both has the skill to tax and set the norms of sources.

2016-12-02 08:29:06 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Only if one is hypocritical themselves.

2007-01-15 13:39:32 · answer #5 · answered by Answerer 7 · 0 0

We judge at that moment upon the facts we believe are factual. What are the facts? Do we know them, or only believe. It is impolite and probably inaffectual, or negatively affectual...certainly negative in some way. The Judgment is negative, the Will is positive.

2007-01-15 13:41:32 · answer #6 · answered by Psyengine 7 · 1 1

Good question.

2007-01-15 13:38:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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