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I do believe it's possible, maybe with trig., but I'm not sure.

2007-01-15 12:45:14 · 5 answers · asked by Pooky W 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

Draw it out and measure the sides by hand!

2007-01-15 12:47:51 · answer #1 · answered by L Thorton 2 · 0 2

It is possible with trig, using the 'tangent function.' Just divide the side opposite the angle by the side adjacent to the angle, then use the 'inverse tangent' to find the angle measure.

2007-01-15 21:03:30 · answer #2 · answered by tlf 3 · 0 0

yeah you definitely use trig but which sides are given determines what trig function is used

2007-01-15 20:49:59 · answer #3 · answered by alexn1018 2 · 0 0

You would have to use the law of cosines which reads:

a^2=b^2+c^2-2bc cosA

2007-01-15 20:48:47 · answer #4 · answered by abcde12345 4 · 2 0

You use cosine law

cos

2007-01-15 20:50:51 · answer #5 · answered by keely_66 3 · 0 0

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