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Do the rules get changed to suit.

2007-01-15 10:27:34 · 17 answers · asked by ash32b 2 in Society & Culture Royalty

17 answers

In the days of Edward VIII, a King could not have a wife who was divorced previously. She was also a commoner. Things are different today, however. ie: Charles and Camilla.

2007-01-16 13:36:01 · answer #1 · answered by bellegurl17 4 · 0 0

He WAS a King - Edward VIII. He abdicated the throne because, as King, he was also head of the Church of England and could not marry a divorced woman (Wallis Simpson).
Prince Charles is not yet King (and probably never will be). He married a divorced woman who, should he become King, will NOT be Queen.
My bets on them waiting for William to avoid the issue.
Edward was VERY sympathetic to Hitler. They packed him off to Bermuda or the Bahamas. I don't think he ever returned to England - maybe once - when George VI told him to get lost and not come back.
George VI was a terrific King, and despite some personal problems (stuttering and never wanting to be King in the fist place) really helped the English get through the War - along with the indomitable Queen Mother.

2007-01-15 19:38:02 · answer #2 · answered by 34th B.G. - USAAF 7 · 3 1

Because as King of England he would also be the head of the Church of England, which frowned on marriage after divorce. As Wallis Simpson had been married and divorced before and was actually still legally married when she and Edward became involved, there was some cause for concern.

Edward was king for a short while, but as he was determined to marry Mrs Simpson, he chose to abdicate, as the idea of Mrs Simpson as his wife was generally unpopular throughout the kingdom. If he had married her, and remained King, there may have been a constitutional crisis, as the Government ministers did not support him and would have resigned.

You have to remember also, that in those days divorce was really not as socially acceptable as it is today. A divorce could mean real scandal in society, and most of the upper crust would want to escape that.

I find the thought of marriage after divorce being unacceptable as hard to understand, because wasn't the Church of England founded on the premise of divorce? King Henry VIII and his myriad wives? If divorce was so unacceptable, maybe they should have reverted to Catholicism!!!! But then, these were the good old days - things have probably improved now.

If you want to read more on Edward the VIII check the wikipedia link below. The paragraph on "Abdication" would cover your question.....

Hope this helps!

2007-01-15 23:56:53 · answer #3 · answered by vdrt 2 · 3 1

He was King Emperor. He chose to relinquish His right to the Throne. He may have been King, but He wasn't a despot. Even Kings rule by the will of the people. No one, even today would entertain a twice divorced american as Queen consort or even wife of the Monarch.
If you are referring to Camilla in your question, it has already been stated that she will never be crowned Queen. Assuming of course that Charles ever lives long enough to see the Throne!

2007-01-16 14:45:15 · answer #4 · answered by Raymo 6 · 0 0

There weren't any rules to change.

He was King, and he was Head of the Church of England, and he wanted to marry an American divorcee, and legally he had every right to do so, either fully (so any children would be heirs to the throne) or morganatically (they wouldn't).

BUT . . .

The Prime Minister and the Archbishop of Canterbury told him that if he did that, either way, then the Dominions (Canada, South Africa, India, Australia, and New Zealand) would probably secede from the Commonwealth. They could hardly lie to him, because Edward knew these countries from touring them, both formally and informally. Anyway, he decided to believe them, and chose to abdicate.

2007-01-16 10:08:42 · answer #5 · answered by bh8153 7 · 1 0

IAccording to the Catholic Church she could have married Edward because, her second marriage would not have been recognised as her first husband was still alive. He had died when she married Edward. The second marriage was looked on as nil and void.

2007-01-16 17:54:03 · answer #6 · answered by Plato 5 · 0 0

At that time Stanley Baldwin preferred to have a 'Yes man' as King. Winston Churchill suggested a morgonatic marriage which meant that Wallis Simpson would not be Queen.this was put to all the commonwealth countries and most of them said the King should be allowed to marry whoever he wished.That was also the view of the British people,who loved Edward because he cared about their poverty and poor working and living conditions.But Stanley Baldwin ,in effect lied to the Prince and told him that most of the commonwealth countries would not accept Wallis Simpson under any circumstances.Baldwin wanted George the Sixth to be King because he thought he would be more malleable.in effect ,a 'yes' man

2007-01-15 18:42:58 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 4

I think it was due to the fact at that time divorce just wasn't the way to go. Now in the royal family there are many divorced people just like the average people. I do not believe Charles should be allowed to take the throne due to his marriage to camilla.

2007-01-15 20:15:02 · answer #8 · answered by wildirishrose19522000 5 · 0 2

Things DO change over time. Not always for the better.

Would shudder at the thought that Camella could ever sit on the throne.

2007-01-16 12:47:51 · answer #9 · answered by kiwi 7 · 0 1

The government at the time didn't like the idea. But then again what if she wanted their children, if any, to take her name? The royals today would be known as the Simpsons!

2007-01-16 12:42:39 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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