Alimony comes from a time when women were not ALLOWED to divorce their husbands - only a husband could divorce his wife. Alimony was the money the man paid for his decision to divorce.
But if men and women are "equal" why should anyone pay any alimony? Especially why should the person filing for divorce get anything? (And yes, I'm aware that in some very few cases men have received alimony - so if the gender fits - wear it.)
In recent times, the argument is that alimony is paid for the "services" rendered by the woman: Cook, housekeeper, etc. But no offset is permitted for what they get in return: room, meals, utilities, clothes, transportation - all of which total up to much more than their services were worth.
So which is it? Are women equal (and not entitled to alimony)? Or are they nothing more than money-grubbing whores who are taking advantage of laws that have not yet caught up to the times?
2007-01-15
10:08:15
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6 answers
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asked by
A_Patriot
2
in
Family & Relationships
➔ Marriage & Divorce