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Please rate both verses and post which one is the better one. The basis for your decision would be most helpful.

A. BEHOLD, We have bestowed upon thee good in abundance:
hence, pray unto thy Sustainer [alone], and sacrifice [unto Him alone].
Verily, he that hates thee has indeed been cut off [from all that is good]!

B. Behold, God has granted you many things:
From now on, you should only pray and sacrifice to God alone.
God hates those who have willfully denied God.

Thank you in advance for your honest opinions.

2007-01-14 21:09:10 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

5 answers

There's two things I can comment on.


1. Obviously the second one is better to understand. A translation of anything, not only religious texts, should be into a language that the reader understands. This is a well known requirement of good communication. Translating into a form of the English language as it existed a few hundred years ago is simply poor communication.


2. Whoever wrote those lines writes inconsistently. The first line has God as the first person, the second has the author as the first person and the reader as the second, the third line has the author as the first person and God as the third. If there is some significance in that, then that should be preserved in the translation, so the second translation fails in that respect. However, if you are content with conveying the intent of the message but not every linguistic detail, then the second is acceptable.

That's called dynamic equivalence translation as opposed to literal translation. Whether it's better or worse can't be rated without knowing the intended reader and what the translator is trying to bring across.

2007-01-14 21:35:49 · answer #1 · answered by Raichu 6 · 1 0

whilst the 1st one may be extra "the terrific option" the 2d is a lot much less stressful to confirm wether that's a youthful newborn or an older man or woman.... you do not might desire to place as lots concept into interpreting it to are conscious of it than you do with the 1st one. you could desire to spend time digesting the 1st one line or so by line and the 2d is written in "todays" laungage and lots much less stressful to confirm. Its like the King James version of the Bible Vs the hot Bibles, i might examine a sparkling "present day" bible earlier i might attempt to depiict the KJV purely because of the fact that's much less stressful

2016-10-07 04:32:44 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Okay,

B. Would be my answer. Since i dont live in the 1600's B. is much easier to understand. Too bad in both instances the name of God has been removed.

2007-01-14 21:14:58 · answer #3 · answered by fire 5 · 0 0

Neither. You didn't tell us where you got them and you don't allow us to judge them in context.
My guess is this isn't from the Bible because God loved the world so much he gave his only son to die so that everyone who believes may not perish but have eternal life.

2007-01-14 21:43:06 · answer #4 · answered by Bad bus driving wolf 6 · 0 0

A

I always prefer word-for-word translation to meaning-for-meaning.

2007-01-14 21:13:15 · answer #5 · answered by Last Ent Wife (RCIA) 7 · 0 0

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