Jehovah's witness,why in your Bible at John 1:1 said "In the beginning was the Word....and the Word was"a"god?

Question

In John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word,and the Word was with God(your Bible have "God" which is right,every Bible have it this way),and the Word was a god(Why you make a difference,why you treat Jesus as a pagan "god.")He was with God in the beginnig.
For you,Jesus is God,or He is just called "a god'.
If he is God,why you disrespect Him when you talk about Him using "g" insted "G" on the word "God."
Now, if He is "a god" but not almighty,how you can explain that God the Father love Him so much,how He will love Him when God the Father do not accept other gods. Will He send into us another god,when He condamned anyone who trust other gods.
And if He is not God or god,why the Bible said He is God.Any other Bible write ".....and the Word was God." Not "....and the Word was "a god."
Tell me do you believe Jesus is "God" (the Son)or not and why your Bible changed the way this verse is writting in any other Bible.
I want to find out answers for my questions, I do not hate any body.

Papa Bear. KJV Does say: the Word was God.
My2Cents. In J.W. Bible Colossians 1:16 (I'm checking every verse people mention on their answers,I'm checking it on many diferent Bibles and you just give me another verse that has been changed in the J.W. Bible, and that afect Jesus Image, It make me think that may be J.W. do not look at Jesus the same way as every other Christian does).Anyway, Colossians 1:16(J.W. Bible) For by him all "OTHER" things were created. ......
Other Bibles said:Colossians 1:16 For by Him "ALL THINGS"were created.
Proverbs 8(If you read "all" chapter you will see that this chapter "DO NOT" talk about Jesus but about the wisdom and knowlege.

Answer 1

The Watchtower had to invent a translation of the bible to conform to their beliefs. They had to stop using the King James version as it countered some of their beliefs. John 1:1 is an excellent example.

Answer 2

Jehovah is called the "God of gods", Deut 10:17. This can't mean "God of false/pagan gods" because if you do that you are comparing Jehovah to Satan, which is definitely not true. Just like saying "Lord of lords", other lords are existing as well.

Regarding John 1:1, remember all English translations are simply "translations". from the Greek "kai the·os´ en ho lo´gos". The "theos" is translated in different versions of the Bible as "god" or "God".


Please notice how other translations render the John 1:1 :

1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.
1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.
1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.
1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.
1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.
1950: “and the Word was a god.” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.
1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.
1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.
1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.


The Bible doesn't say at all "God the Son", never is that phrase used in the Bible, but it ALWAYS use "The Son of God" or the "Son of the Living God". Notice, how "God the Father" is used but never "God the Son". How come reincarnation is not used in the Bible?

God loved his Son so much because he is his ONLY-BEGOTTEN SON. Although Jesus, the Son of God, was also a "god" in the beginning, he became a "Mighty God" which was a prophecy and a title that he doesn't have before. (See Isa 9:6 which is in FUTURE tenses , shall/will)

John 5:26 states "For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has GRANTED also to the Son to have LIFE in himself". Jesus admitted that his source of life, and the one who have gave him life is his Father.

Prov 8 talks about the figurative wisdom who was created. This cannot be the literal wisdom of God, since God has always has his wisdom. If it is not literal, it is figurative. 1 Cor 1:24 states that Christ is the wisdom of God.

Regarding Col 1:16, the Greek word for "all" is pas. This can also mean "all other". The same Greek word is used in Mark 4:32 where it states "32 but when it has been sown, it comes up and becomes greater than ALL OTHER vegetables and produces great branches" That means the mustard has become greater that "all other" vegetables excluding itself.

Jesus was called as a creation who is the firstborn (Col 1:15) , and of all the creation by God, he is the beginning. Jehovah is never described as "firstborn of all creation" nor as "beginning of the creation BY GOD"

Answer 3

Which King James Version say the Word was God? There are five of them, created over a 150 years time period, and only the last one matched the beliefs of the Church of England enough to be "Authorized." Want to guess how John 1:1 reads in one or more of the earlier versions?

Determining whether it should say God or a god is as simple as buying an Interlinear Greek Translation of the New Testament, at any Bible Book Store. It should also be noted that the Apostle John used the exact same spelling for god that he used in reference to The Word, he also used in reference to Satan, so should Satan also be referred to as God?

The finniest thing I find about the arguments is when they refer to scriptures in the old testament, which refers to the Word as a Mighty God. They say this proves it, but it actually proves he's not, as a Might God receives its power and existence from an Almighty God.

This issue is only one small part of what it overall means to be a JW. Their whole lives are based around Christ, and not just on Sunday or holidays. They are so happy about their salvation that they are driven to go out and teach others. Those of other religions don't feel that same drive and zeal.

The best example of the truth behind the JWs is how many times every other religion has tried to copy them and their preaching methods. Now, even the Muslims are trying to get their followers to do house to house work, without success. I have a pamphlet on it.

Answer 4

In Koine Greek, there is not any indefinite article ("a"); in the absence of a unique article ("the") an indefinite article is oftentimes rightly assumed, yet even as there is not any certain article in the front of "God" in John a million:a million, we shouldn't assume an indefinite article. The textual content reads actually: "?? ???? ?? ? ?????, ??? ? ????? ?? ???? ??? ????, ??? ???? ?? ? ?????." In beginning grow to be the observe and the observe grow to be with the God, and God grow to be the observe. John has achieved a good pastime of creating this sentence so as that he both publicizes Christ to be God even as also holding that Christ and the daddy are not any further an same human being. Had he reported that the observe grow to be THE God, with a unique article, he would have referred to as Jesus and the daddy thoroughly an same, which all of us recognize isn't the case. yet in the experience that they don't look to be an same, why no longer call "the observe" (Jesus) yet another god? seem on the 2d clause noticeably (??? ???? ?? ? ?????. - and God grow to be the observe.) observe that John has placed God, no longer the observe, on the start of the clause. it is how a speaker of Koine extra emphasis to a observe, as if to underline it. So John is emphasizing Jesus' Godhood even as nevertheless putting apart his personhood from the daddy, no longer transforming into a polytheistic plurality of Gods. Had he switched the order and placed "a god" on the top of the clause, then the indefinite article assumption would were a touch more suitable sensible. The context of the finished of scripture must be an sufficient education guide to respond to the question notwithstanding, as there is in trouble-free words one God, and there would nicely be no valid "a god." The NWT also makes many obvious interpretive blunders and may no longer be depended on ordinarily. as an celebration, it erroneously inserts Jehovah each and every time the Greek obviously says "lord." This demonstrates the plain biases of the translators in want of a particular theological view.

Answer 5

It is due to that the orginal greek text first refers to the word being with THE god, "the" is translated from the greek word the'os meaning the definite article that the word was with the almighty god and then it says christ was god without the word the'os before calling him god. The writer was expressing that the word or Christ was godlike or divine. Many other translations recognized this and and so say as follows:
The new testament-"and the word was a god"
Das neue Testament-"and of a divine kind was the word"
Das Evangelium Nauch-"and godlike kind was the Logos"
The bible, an American translation-"and the word was divine"

Answer 6

The Amplified Bible
John 1:1;
IN THE beginning [ before all time ] was the Word (Christ ), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God Himself. 2 He was present originally with God.

The KJV Bible 1611.
John 17:3,5,24; 20:17 [ God and Father of Jesus is our God and Father ];
Jesus was with God before the world was. Col.1:15-17 Jesus first creation created in the image of God. Rev.3:14; John 3:16; Matt.3:16,17 [ Jesus is son ]; 16:16,17;
John 10:34-36
Jesus said, I called them gods to whom the word of God came. Heb.4:12; John 12:47,48 [ THE WORD IS POWERFUL ];
They said Jesus was guilty of blasphemy for saying he was the son of God.
Job 38:4-7;
All the angels are called morning stars and sons of God. Heb.1:1-13; Jesus is above the angels.

The Learning Bible 1995 to 2000
John 1:1;
In the beginning is the one who is called the Word.
The Word was with God and was truely God.

New Living Translation
John 1:1;
In the beginning the Word already existed. He was with God, he was God.

Gen.1:26;
God said,"Let us make man in our image, after our likeness." [ Most bible simular here ];

CERTAINLY HAVE MANY TRANSLATIONS TO CHOOSE FROM.

Answer 7

John 1:1 states: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (King James Version) Later in the same chapter, the apostle John clearly shows that “the Word” is Jesus. (John 1:14) Since the Word is called God, however, some conclude that the Son and the Father must be part of the same God.

Bear in mind that this part of the Bible was originally written in Greek. Later, translators rendered the Greek text into other languages. A number of Bible translators, though, did not use the phrase “the Word was God.” Why not? Based on their knowledge of Biblical Greek, those translators concluded that the phrase “the Word was God” should be translated differently. How? Here are a few examples: “The Logos [Word] was divine.” (A New Translation of the Bible) “The Word was a god.” (The New Testament in an Improved Version) “The Word was with God and shared his nature.” (The Translator’s New Testament) According to these translations, the Word is not God himself. Instead, because of his high position among Jehovah’s creatures, the Word is referred to as “a god.” Here the term “god” means “mighty one.”

John further writes in chapter 1, verse 18: “No man has seen [Almighty] God at any time.” However, humans have seen Jesus, the Son, for John says: “The Word [Jesus] was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory.” (John 1:14, KJ) How, then, could the Son be part of Almighty God? John also states that the Word was “with God.” But how can an individual be with someone and at the same time be that person? Moreover, as recorded at John 17:3, Jesus makes a clear distinction between himself and his heavenly Father. He calls his Father “the only true God.” And toward the end of his Gospel, John sums up matters by saying: “These have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God.” (John 20:31) Notice that Jesus is called, not God, but the Son of God. This additional information provided in the Gospel of John shows how John 1:1 should be understood. Jesus, the Word, is “a god” in the sense that he is divine or has a high position but is not the same as Almighty God. Jesus called "a god" does not put him in the same category as the pagan gods.

How Jehovah God loves Jesus so much?
Since all created things had a beginning, there was a time when God was alone. Countless ages ago, however, God became a Creator. Who was his first creation? The last book of the Bible identifies Jesus as “the beginning of the creation by God.” (Revelation 3:14) Jesus is “the firstborn of all creation.” That is so “because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible.” (Colossians 1:15, 16) Yes, Jesus was the only one directly created by God himself. (Proverbs 8:22-30) Therefore, he is called God’s “only-begotten Son.” (John 3:16) The firstborn Son also bears the title “the Word.” (John 1:14) Why? Because before being born as a human, he served in heaven as one who spoke for God.

“The Word” was with Jehovah God “in the beginning,” when “the heavens and the earth” were created. He was the one to whom God said: “Let us make man in our image.” (John 1:1; Genesis 1:1, 26) Jehovah’s firstborn Son was there at his Father’s side, actively working with him. At Proverbs 8:22-31, he is represented as saying: “I came to be beside [the Creator] as a master worker, and I came to be the one he was specially fond of day by day, I being glad before him all the time.”

Proverbs 8:22-31  “Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago. 23 From time indefinite I was installed, from the start, from times earlier than the earth. 24 When there were no watery deeps I was brought forth as with labor pains, when there were no springs heavily charged with water. 25 Before the mountains themselves had been settled down, ahead of the hills, I was brought forth as with labor pains, 26 when as yet he had not made the earth and the open spaces and the first part of the dust masses of the productive land. 27 When he prepared the heavens I was there; when he decreed a circle upon the face of the watery deep, 28 when he made firm the cloud masses above, when he caused the fountains of the watery deep to be strong, 29 when he set for the sea his decree that the waters themselves should not pass beyond his order, when he decreed the foundations of the earth, 30 then I came to be beside him as a master worker, and I came to be the one he was specially fond of day by day, I being glad before him all the time, 31 being glad at the productive land of his earth, and the things I was fond of were with the sons of men."

How intimately Jehovah God and his only-begotten Son must have come to know each other as they worked side by side! That close association with Jehovah for untold ages deeply affected God’s Son. This obedient Son came to be just like his Father, Jehovah. In fact, Colossians 1:15 calls Jesus “the image of the invisible God.”

Answer 8

Several bibles translate John 1:1 in a manner compatible with the phrase "the Word was a god". Frankly, the entire bible teaches that Jesus (the Word) is distinct from and subject to Jehovah the Father.
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_06.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/rq/index.htm?article=article_03.htm

Yet this so-called "question" seems to focus on "New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures", which is distributed by Jehovah's Witnesses. There are more than 130 million copies of this modern-language bible in print, in dozens of languages.
http://watchtower.org/languages.htm

The entire text of NWT is freely available at the official website of Jehovah's Witnesses, and a personal printed copy can be requested at no charge:
http://watchtower.org/bible/
https://watch002.securesites.net/contact/submit.htm
http://watchtower.org/how_to_contact_us.htm


Jehovah's Witnesses certainly like NWT, but they are happy to use any translation which an interested person may prefer, and in fact Jehovah's Witnesses themselves distribute other translations besides NWT. Jehovah's Witnesses attach no particular infallibility or inspiration to NWT.

Since the same manuscripts used by the NWT translators are still widely available for study, and since there are dozens of alternate translations for comparison, anyone who chooses to use NWT does so informedly.

It seems that the vast majority of the criticism against the New World Translation is actually as a proxy for blind hatred against Jehovah's Witnesses. The hatred must be "blind" since secular experts of biblical Hebrew and Greek have consistently refused to condemn any particular verse or phrase as an unacceptable translation. Instead, it is religionists with preconceived theologies who bigotedly insist upon particular wordings, since these are necessary to prop up the shakey tenets of their false worship.

(2 Timothy 4:3-5) For there will be a period of time when they will not put up with the healthful teaching, but, in accord with their own desires, they will accumulate teachers for themselves to have their ears tickled; and they will turn their ears away from the truth, whereas they will be turned aside to false stories. You, though, keep your senses in all things, suffer evil, do the work of an evangelizer, fully accomplish your ministry.

It seems signficant that the relatively small religion of Jehovah's Witnesses are the ones best known for their worldwide preaching work. Yet Jesus commanded that ALL who would call themselves "Christian" perform this public work:

(Matthew 28:19,20) Go therefore and make disciples of people of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit, teaching them to observe all the things I have commanded you. And, look! I am with you all the days until the conclusion of the system of things.

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/pr/index.htm?article=article_04.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/na/
http://watchtower.org/e/20020915/article_01.htm
http://www.watchtower.org/e/20050715/article_02.htm

Answer 9

Jehovah himself calls Moses 'God' "G" Ex 7:1
Jehovah himself calls the human judges of Israel, gods Ps 82:6

If it is acceptable to call Moses and human judges God / gods, how much more exceptable is it to call the 'Only Begotten Son' a god. (Mighty One) Jesus like Moses and the judges of Israel is an appointed judge of mankind.

Judges 13:21, 22 an angel of Jehovah is called "God" 'G', why because he was Jehovah's representive.

Is Jesus Jehovah's representive? Yes. Heb 1:3.

Robert H. Gundry of Westmont College, Ca, USA wrote us:

"As to the translation of John 1:1,"and the Word was a god" is grammatically possible but not grammatically favoured."

Murray J. Harris:

"According, from the point of view of grammar alone,[theos en ho logos]could be rendered "the Word was a god."-Jesus As God, 1992, pp.60.

C.H.Dodd has also written:

"If a translation were a matter of substituting words, a possible translation of [theos en ho logos]; would be "The Word was a god". As a word-for-word translation it cannot be faulted, and to pagan Greeks who heard early Christian language,[theos en ho logos]might have seemed a perfectly sensible statement, in that sense["signifying one of a class of beings regarded as divine"-Dodd, ibed).....The reason why it is unacceptable is that it runs counter to the current of Johannine thought, and indeed of Christian thought as a whole."-Technical Papers for The Bible Translator, Vol 28, No.1, January 1977.

The New Catholic Encyclopedia states: “The formulation ‘one God in three Persons’ was not solidly established, certainly not fully assimilated into Christian life and its profession of faith, prior to the end of the 4th century. But it is precisely this formulation that has first claim to the title the Trinitarian dogma. Among the Apostolic Fathers, there had been nothing even remotely approaching such a mentality or perspective.”—(1967), Vol. XIV, p. 299.

Even the Catholic Church knows the trinity is not taught in the bible.

To understand Col 1:16, you first have to understand verse 15.

“Image of the invisible God”

What is an image?

What does the bible say about worshiping idols?

The bible states that images have no power unto themselves.

Is this true of Jesus?

Yes all power and authority that Jesus has, is because it has been given to him.

Matt 28:18; So whatever authority Jesus has in heaven today, it was given to him by his Father.

John 5:27; John 19:11; John 7:16-18; John 14:10; 1 Cor 15:27

As an image of his Father, when we “see” Jesus we see his Father, (John 14:9-11)

If we believe Jesus is more or less than “the image of God” then we have been blinded by Satan.

2 Cor 4:4 “the Christ, who is the image of God, might not shine through.”

Heb 1:3 “He is the reflection of God’s glory and the exact representation of his very being.”

Just as an mirror reflects an image, Jesus reflects an image of Jehovah, but that image is not the original.

Just as a picture is a representation of a being, it is not the original.

“firstborn of every creature”,

Many bibles state “firstborn of all creation” ASV, NASB,

So which every ‘version’ of this verse you prefer, Jesus is the firstborn.

According to my dictionary, firstborn means ‘the first child created or brought to life by one’s parents’

This agrees with the statement, “Jesus is the only begotten Son of Jehovah.”

According to my dictionary, begotten means ‘created or brought to life by one’s parents.’

Who is the parent of Jesus? God the Father.

Rev 3:14 states that Jesus is “the beginning of the creation of God” ASV, NASB

The footnote in the NASB for ‘beginning’ references Prov 8:22. So ‘Wisdom’ at Proverbs chap. 8, is a title that applies to Jesus, the same as ‘Word’ at John 1:1 applies to Jesus.

Since Jesus is a creation of God,

he cannot be ‘The Creator’,

Did Jesus help in the creation, yes. Just as a carpenter or mason, can say ‘I built that house’ they are not the builder.

so as to the words ‘by’ and ‘through’ Jesus means that God created all things through Jesus, and not that the power to create originated in Jesus.

Jesus is the channel, not source of creation.

See Strongs.

To believe otherwise is go beyond the things written

Answer 10

The Watch Tower translation is considered a very good work.
However John 1;1 does not agree with the original Greek. I have checked it out personally.
Greek is my first language.

Maranatha!