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Is the genealogy in Mat one on joseph,and the one in Luke of Jesus mother? If so then why does it say in Mat. 1
16And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.
This says Jabcob was Joseph's father.
And here in luke 3 it says,
23And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli,

Here it says Heli was Joseph's father.
Please help me understand this!
Thank you, I never knew about this until a friend pointed it out. Got me off guard,

2007-01-14 10:55:23 · 9 answers · asked by Mijoecha 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

mainworry
Thanks brother!
This is correct!

2007-01-14 11:06:48 · update #1

srprimeau...
I am happy for all your help, I see no problem with it now, I am glad I asked the question,cause now I know. Thanks!

2007-01-14 11:09:08 · update #2

Svartalf
Thanks for the attack on my faith. All I wanted was to understand, not to have a war here, you seem to want a war with God and His people. You sound very bitter or maybe hateful towards the new testament. If Jesus was here would you cry out KILL HIM?
Do you have any idea how Israel will be blessed when they come down off their high horse and say Blessed be he who comes in the name of the Lord. Or do you like it the way it is? hmm I wonder.
Peace to you.

2007-01-14 11:16:12 · update #3

Boaz !
Thanks,gee it sounds like the Moslums really know their bible,and acknoledge Jesus. Wow I never knew that!
Thanks!
God Bless you.

2007-01-14 11:20:27 · update #4

oops sorry I meant Muslims , Indeed it was good to hear from you, and you never attacked my faith, This is good indeed that you even answered, thanks!

2007-01-14 11:23:15 · update #5

gluckstad
thanks for your answer, I am not sure I see an answer I can say, "yes this is it", to be honest,but thanks it all adds up right.
God Bless you.

2007-01-14 11:26:40 · update #6

revshanku...
Impressive,
Man you know your Bible history !
Thank you for your answer it means a lot to me :)
God Bless you

2007-01-14 11:29:54 · update #7

9 answers

It is commonly accepted the Matthew wrote his Gospel with Jewish people in mind. It was written before the Romans came and ransakced Jerusalem in AD 70. The wording in The Gospel of Matthew suggests that his readers were people who would understand things from a Jewish point of view. Thus, the lineage is one that dates itself through Abraham(the father of the Jewish faith) and goes through David (their greatest king)

Luke was a Gentile and a doctor. He is getting his information second hand, mainly thought to be recieving his information from peter and other accounts he is hearing. This historical aspect is carried into the Book of Acts.

When he writes his geneology, he uses a lineage going all the way back to Adam since most religions in the gentile culture have some form of understanding of how the world began and where it all came from.

Sorry for all the rude language here in Answers
you have a good question that deserves a good answer.

Hope all that helps

Jesus Loves You

2007-01-14 11:26:02 · answer #1 · answered by revshankumc 2 · 1 1

The ancient Hebrew society was patriarchal and subdivided by clans. Women are earth-bound vehicles chosen by God to be spiritual incubation chambers. Any woman, covenant seed incubator, mentioned in the Old Testament (the Torah) prophetically mirrored a future religious expressions. For instance, prophetically there is the Hagar (Muslim) spiritual seed. There is the Rebekah spiritual lineage. There is the Miriam or Mary--spiritual lineage. Chroniclers would never reference the clan of the matriarch except to say that she was the daughter of so and so, or sister of so and so. Sometimes Jeshua is called son of David--the Hamitic clan of Solomon. Prophetically God had scribes document the clans so that by the time the gentiles kidnapped the religion, burned the ancient Libraries and confiscated and destroyed texts except what God hid, unless different writers had documented the specific clans, people would actually believe that the Hamitic, Japhethic and Semitic seed of the melanin-rich Noah could have produced a Gentile-looking Son. See why so many ancient Hebrews and Muslims reject the portrayed image of the Messiah?

In the Holy Koran, there is a reference to Mary as daughter of Levi. That is the priestly clan she came from. Actually the records indicate that she had lineage of both clans of Judah and Levi.

Boaz.

2007-01-14 19:15:57 · answer #2 · answered by Boaz 4 · 1 0

In all likelihood, it is because those genealogies were made up to try and make Jesus conform to the Messianic prophecies, while he did not, and possibly because his parents, while of good families, came from branches so minor that their genealogies had not been kept.

While it is possible that Matthew the evangelist is the same as Matthew the publican, who was among the twelve apostles, that is not certain, and Luke never knew Jesus personally. Both gospels were written some 20 to 40 years after Jesus died, and it is possible that significant details were forgotten or lost, and had to be made up for verisimilitude, lest the gospels fail to convince potential converts.

EDIT
Sorry if I shocked you. Unfortunately, That's the most likely explanation I can find for the discrepancies between two versions of the same tale, with no way to determine whether either is right, or neither is.

I'll freely admit I don't believe Jesus to be the Messiah, though, and I have come to this conclusion through merciless analysis of the bible with a historian's eyes, and by trying to understand why the Jews did not convert en masse. Jesus would have been the best thing spirituality ever invented since man decided to differenciate good from evil if he hadn't been so misused by people who insisted he be a god instead of the best Rabbi ever born.

2007-01-14 19:07:31 · answer #3 · answered by Svartalf 6 · 0 2

Luke’s genealogy moves backward, from Jesus to Adam; Matthew’s moves forward, from Abraham to Joseph. Luke’s entire section from Joseph to David differs starkly from that given by Matthew. The two genealogies are easily reconciled if Luke’s is seen as Mary’s genealogy, and Matthew’s version represents Joseph’s. Thus the royal line is passed through Jesus’ legal father, and His physical descent from David is established by Mary’s lineage. Luke, unlike Matthew, includes no women in his genealogy -- even Mary herself. Joseph was “the son of Heli” by marriage (Heli having no sons of his own), and thus is named here in v. 23 as the representative of Mary’s generation. Moses himself established precedent for this sort of substitution in Numbers 27:1-11; 36:1-12.

2007-01-14 19:05:58 · answer #4 · answered by srprimeaux 5 · 1 1

since Joseph was not jesus true father why the need ?his mothers geneology would be more important
Matriarchy is distinct from matrilineality, where children are identified in terms of their mother rather than their father, and extended families and tribal alliances form along female blood-lines. For instance, in Jewish Halakhic tradition only a person born of a Jewish mother is automatically considered Jewish. Hence Jewish descent is passed on from the mother to the child (see: Who is a Jew).

2007-01-14 19:18:01 · answer #5 · answered by revdauphinee 4 · 0 0

In Matthew Joseph’s genealogy is given, notice that it says “Jacob begat Joseph”.

Matt.1:16 And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.

In Luke Mary’s genealogy is given.

Luk 3:23 And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli,

The words “was supposed” (nomizo) in Greek means “as reckoned by law”. Joseph was Heli’s son in law and “begat” is not used.

Mary’s Father Heli’s genealogy is of Judah or the king line.

Mary’s mothers’ name is not given but we have some clues as to her lineage.

Luke 1:5 There was in the days of Herod, the king of Judaea, a certain priest named Zacharias, of the course of Abia: and his wife was of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elisabeth.

Elisabeth was of the daughters of Aaron or Levite.

Luke 1:36 And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren.

The word “cousin” (suggenes) in Greek means “kinswomen”.

Mary’s mother’s genealogy is of Levi or levetical priest line.

Hence Jesus Christ is our King and high priest.

Heb.5:10 Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec.

Psa.110:4 The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek.

Melchizedek (malkiy-tsedeq) in Hebrew means “King of Righteousness”.

2007-01-14 18:59:14 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Actualy the genealogy listed in Matthew was to point out the royal line from King David as Matthew was directing his letter to the Jews.
Luke on the other hand was writing his letter as historical findings showing man line all the was to Adam....thus no evolution

2007-01-14 19:07:40 · answer #7 · answered by gluckstadt_randy 3 · 0 1

Why does the genealogy in Mat. seem to differ from the genealogy in Luke,both seem to imply Joesph's linage?

NO Errors...One skips a bit.

2007-01-14 18:59:42 · answer #8 · answered by whynotaskdon 7 · 0 1

actually one lineage is the lineage of Mary and the other is joseph.
never believe any preacher that says the bible is PERFECT because at first blush it is obviously NOT perfect in translation or in interpretation.

2007-01-14 19:00:06 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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