Why do we say 'Latin America' when we want to refer to a part of America that happens to be the majority of America. Since 70% of America is Latin America, while only 30% is Anglo America, shouldn't we assume that when we say America we are talking about Latin America and if we want to specify the minority that is not 'Latin' state 'Anglo America'?
2007-01-14 08:48:31 · 3 answers · asked by r1b1c* 7 in Education & Reference ➔ Other - Education
I have to disagree with you. When you say "America" you're mentioning all the continent, "People from America are nice", that includes the US. What's wrong
:)
2007-01-14 11:48:07 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
No, because America is Latin America and also 'Anglo america'. The term Latin America is used to those countries where the oficial languaje is a latin languaje (Spanish, Portuguese or French).
2007-01-15 14:30:17 · answer #2 · answered by Philidor 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not really a question, but often we use a specific term to apply to a majority. Latin just refers to the language spoken in those countries.
2007-01-14 16:52:19 · answer #3 · answered by Mark S 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋