Jesus is a God and not the God according to the original GREEK scriptures in John 1:1?

Question

Sorry Trinitirians, but your bible is wrong. Jesus was a God...Not The God.

Orginal Translation in English John 1:1

http://www.greeklatinaudio.com/john11.htm

"In the beginning was the word and the word was with god and a god was the word"

This goes in harmony with the entire bible, That is why Jesus never stated been equal to The God and always referred to himself as THE SON OF GOD and stated that his was doing HIS FATHERS WILL.

He prayed to his Father before he died.

WAKE UP Trinitirians and see the truth.

patrone07!!!!!!!!!!!!!

The verses you posted!!!!!!

Can't you see???????

Jesus the image of the invisible God????

Yes, Jesus was the image, the reprensantative of GOD. He came down in God's name to show us the truth about God. Everything he did mirror his father.

The firstborn??????

Gods child....WOW, you are so confused.

sistermus...I can see your not really interested in searching the truth. You either didn't read the entrie article or you just didn't understanded, or you just didn't really care?

Answer 1

Yes. Jesus was a god not a God ... He was not an equal to his Father. And the entire Bible is in harmony with that. One example is this: after getting baptised and rising from the water, a dove descended on Jesus and a voice came out of the heavens saying "this is my Son, the one I have approved."

There are many other examples as well. The Trinity is definately not valid, and the explanation that the Trinity is "mysterious, and nobody will understand it" is overrated.

Here are a couple articles I found:

http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/article_03.htm

http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/article_04.htm

http://www.watchtower.org/library/ti/article_05.htm

there is a lot more, enjoy :)
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I found this about John 1:1

At John 1:1 there are two occurrences of the Greek noun the·os' (god). The first occurrence refers to Almighty God, with whom the Word was ("and the Word [lo'gos] was with God [a form of the·os']"). This first the·os' is preceded by the word ton (the), a form of the Greek definite article that points to a distinct identity, in this case Almighty God ("and the Word was with [the] God").

On the other hand, there is no article before the second the·os' at John 1:1. So a literal translation would read, "and god was the Word." Yet we have seen that many translations render this second the·os' (a predicate noun) as "divine," "godlike," or "a god." On what authority do they do this?

The Koine Greek language had a definite article ("the"), but it did not have an indefinite article ("a" or "an"). So when a predicate noun is not preceded by the definite article, it may be indefinite, depending on the context.

The Journal of Biblical Literature says that expressions "with an anarthrous [no article] predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning." As the Journal notes, this indicates that the lo'gos can be likened to a god. It also says of John 1:1: "The qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun [the·os'] cannot be regarded as definite."

So John 1:1 highlights the quality of the Word, that he was "divine," "godlike," "a god," but not Almighty God. This harmonizes with the rest of the Bible, which shows that Jesus, here called "the Word" in his role as God's Spokesman, was an obedient subordinate sent to earth by his Superior, Almighty God.

There are many other Bible verses in which almost all translators in other languages consistently insert the article "a" when translating Greek sentences with the same structure. For example, at Mark 6:49, when the disciples saw Jesus walking on water, the King James Version says: "They supposed it had been a spirit." In the Koine Greek, there is no "a" before "spirit." But almost all translations in other languages add an "a" in order to make the rendering fit the context. In the same way, since John 1:1 shows that the Word was with God, he could not be God but was "a god," or "divine."

Joseph Henry Thayer, a theologian and scholar who worked on the American Standard Version, stated simply: "The Logos was divine, not the divine Being himself." And Jesuit John L. McKenzie wrote in his Dictionary of the Bible: "Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated . . . 'the word was a divine being.'"

Answer 2

You are correct!!! Belief in a triune God is a man-made concept, taken from Greek Philosophy, and to support this, some scriptures were changed, this is a classic example.

However these translations are not even consistent because in other scripture where the indefinite article appears in the same way, they will render; for example: John 6:70, Judas Iscariot is referred to as "a devil" not "The Devil", also Jon 9:17 Jesus as described as "a prophet" not "The Prophet", interesting isn't it?

Don't even get me started how this horrible bogus concept does not agree with the Holy Bible. Trinity=Blasphemy, and it is sad because it takes peoples attention away from The most high God.
Remember Jesus wanted his Father's name sanctified, but Satan has blinded people(as prophesied) to the true God, and many turn away from God because, face-it, who can understand a 3=1 God, not only does this contradict basic math, but it prevents people for drawing close to a God that they don't understand.

Answer 3

"En arche een `o logos kai `o logos een pros ton theon kai theon een `o logon," translates as, "In beginning was the word and the word was toward the god and god was the word."

Koine Greek did not have an indefinite article. In the phrase "a god was the word," the word "a" is an assumption of the translator. We can't tell if it's "God" or "a god".

And your solution does seem to promote polytheism. Is that really a better situation?

Answer 4

The New World Translation which you are quoting is used by the Jehovah's Witnesses and was changed to read as you are quoting around 1950.

The original Greek uses the word "Theos" and it uses that word twice.

"In the Beginning was the Word, and was with God(Theos) and the Word was God(Theos)"

There is no words in the Greek for "a" or "an" and Theos is definately not translated into two words anywhere, anytime.

In JohnChap 8 he clearly says to the Pharisees, "before Abraham was, I AM"
using the same language that would have been used in Hebrew or Aramic that would have been used back in Exodus when Moses approached the burning bush.

Jesus is not just the Son of God, he is God and made himself equal to the Father on many occasions.

More often than not, he referred to himself as the "Son of Man", so as to present himself as servant to mankind, taking our human existance upon himself.

Hope that helps clear up any confusion

Jesus Loves You

Answer 5

Did you actually read ALL of this article because it says the literal translation of John 1:1 is... "in beginning was the word and the word was with the god and god was the word." So the Greek is saying that Logos (Jesus) and God are equal therefore Jesus is God. Also check out John 8. Blessings to you!

Answer 6

Wake up and take a course in Greek grammar. Normally, when a Greek noun has no article, it is read with the indefinite article. People with little knowledge of Greek will point out that the word "Theos" in John 1:1 does not have the definite article, and so translate the text as "the Logos was a god." However - in Greek, the predicate nominative drops the definite article, in order to distinguish subject from predicate nominative. So, John 1:1 can only be translated as "the Logos was God." This verse confirms the Deity of Christ in unambiguous terms. The rest of the New Testament reflects the Deity of Christ as well - the Apostle Paul, for example, quotes Old Testament passages that refer to YHVH, and applies them to Jesus.

Answer 7

...Correction - your Bible is the Jehovah's Witness version, the New Word Translation, is it not? And it is doctored to suit your doctrinal fancies.
...There are other passages you have to deal with, such as:
...Hebrews 1:8 But of the Son He says, "Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever." Read all of Hebrews 1.
...John 5:18 says this: For this reason therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God.
...Isaiah 9:6 For a child will be born to us, a son will be given to us; and the government will rest on His shoulders; and His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.
...This is no small thing. You believe in a Jesus foreign to the Bible, one who is some kind of lesser being, but not equal with God.
...The Lord Jesus Christ, who is God in the flesh, is the God of the Bible. It does make a difference - your salvation depends on it.
...Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and be saved - Acts 16:31
...Whosoever will, may come.

Answer 8

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 The same was in the beginning with God.

Joh 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Rev 19:13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.

Heb 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;

Answer 9

Actually Jesus Christ refers to Himself as God in several scriptures: John 14:9 is one. If you cannot believe in Jesus Christ as God Almighty, you are forever lost. God is one God with three separate manifestations. I will give you an earthly example of this.
The Sun is an object (A Star) The Sun is Light The Sun is Heat
One object, three separate manifestations. Read scripture and study it, do not just repeat what others taught you. Study and learn for yourself.

Answer 10

Actually my brother, Jesus almost always refered to himself as the SON OF MAN. He pointed out to the people that all of us are sons/daughters of God. The Son of Man is the exclusive title. The 3 in 1 doctrine needs 3 parts. Nowhere does it claim Jesus is the Father part. h2o is water - each atom needed whether it is ice, liquid, or steam.
I don't the group which puts out your URL, but they have a bias to sell. I just pulled out my Greek Testament. (twice to double check) and that is not how the Greek reads.