Can we install motor and genrator on the same shaft. i mean if we extand the motor shaft and install a genrator on the same shaft, can we able to run the same motor with the electricty produced by gen set. is it feasible?
2007-01-12 20:45:33 · 5 answers · asked by technocrate90 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Engineering
Sure you can, but you can only suppliment the power to the motor, obviously. You can't violate the 1st law. You may also have to filter and condition the power generated, depending on the motor.
(And if you don't know the first law, stay away from motors and shafts and go into art.)
2007-01-12 20:58:29 · answer #1 · answered by ZenPenguin 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes this is already done on some large ships. There is a shaft generator which is used to generate power from the main engines when underway. This allows the shutdown of a smaller less efficient generator in the engine room. The additional electrical load is placed on the large main engine.
Shaft generators on ships use them when the ship is expected to cruise at a constant speed for a period of time. If the ship is expected to be changing speeds or is in port the shaft generator is not used and a smaller dedicated generator set is placed on line.
Hybrid cars are using a generator to recover some energy from the gas engine and to augment / boost power to the drive train during acceleration and deceleration.
Remember a the difference between a generator and motor is the direction of power flow. A generator produces electrical power from mechanical input and a motor produces mechanical power from electrical input...
So hybrid cars with "shaft generators" use the motor/generator to assist with the cars acceleration and braking. In addition there is some usage of the generator to top off the batteries. Once batteries are topped off and the car is at a constant speed the motor generator is electrically disconnected to remove the load from the engine. This motor/generator management is made possible by a computer/ controller
2007-01-13 17:15:27 · answer #2 · answered by MarkG 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The answer is so simple: it is due to the fact that the result of multiplying two fractions is always less than both. The explanation is: you should know that transferring motional energy to electrical energy is not of 100% efficiency and the same is the reverse operation so that assume that you connect motor and generator together and assume each transferring operation has efficiency of 90%. So that the first amount of motional energy only 0.9 of it will be transferred to the first amount of electrical energy. Also 0.9 of the latter will be transferred to the second amount of motional. So that the second amount of motional energy will be only 0.9X0.9=0.81 of its first amount. And the third is 0.9 X 0.9 X 0.9 so that at the end the energy will decay rapidly until motion stop and no further electrical or motional energy are generated.
2007-01-13 07:11:10 · answer #3 · answered by AHamed 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well motors and generators are the same thing it just depends on whether you want current or power ! hybrid electric cars use this principle - when you send current to the gen/motor it drives the car but when you apply mechanical energy ( by braking ) the gen/motor charges the batteries
and the basic thing you seem to be looking for is called perpetual motion and of course that is impossible because there is not only friction to contend with but nothing converts 100% of the energy you feed it to work
2007-01-13 04:52:41 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
One place where this is actually done is to convert large amounts of power from 60 Hz to 50 Hz.
http://www.pscpower.com/pages/rotary%20frequency%20converter.htm
2007-01-13 17:46:40 · answer #5 · answered by ancient_nerd 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋