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This Work Agreement shall be terminated for the following reasons:
The Second Party does not perform its duties without notice (being absent) after the issuance of the third warning letter upon the occurence of any of the following:
- *Missing* three consecutive working days without permission of the First Party.
2007-01-12 15:30:35 · 9 answers · asked by getmyanswer 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Missing is correct.
The Second Party does not perform its duties without notice (being absent) after the issuance of the third warning letter upon the occurence of any of the following:
--- is a bit confusing
Don't use "its" when referring to a person. Even "his/her" is better than "its."
Failure to perform his/her duties as listed here:
1.
2.
3.
Failure to appear, on time, for scheduled work; employee must not be absent without notice; termination will follow within 24 hours of the third warning, issued in writing, after an unauthorized absence.
Etc.
Lifes
2007-01-12 15:43:05 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The wording is correct as you have it, however, you might want to change that fro "Without Permission of the First Party" to Without a Valid Excuse.
It is possible for a person to have a valid excuse, but be unable to obtain permission.
2007-01-12 23:40:24 · answer #2 · answered by Walking Man 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Termination.
2007-01-12 23:36:04 · answer #3 · answered by JoJoBa 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Slacking off for three consecutive working days.
Playing hookey for three consecutive working days.
2007-01-13 00:05:40 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Perhaps absent ?
2007-01-12 23:34:50 · answer #5 · answered by Shelly_Dare 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The wording is Correct the way U have it sorry
2007-01-12 23:35:12 · answer #6 · answered by sugarbdp1 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
'being absent'
2007-01-13 03:35:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
failure to report for three work days...
2007-01-13 01:53:58 · answer #8 · answered by Kathleen B 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not in attendence
2007-01-12 23:39:53 · answer #9 · answered by pa625 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋