it always speaks about men being effeminate and the story of Sodom and Gomorrah and what not and men having unatrual affection for each other. enlighten me?
2007-01-12 08:07:32 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Because two gay men are "icky" and two gay women are hot.
The Bible also commands priests to wear underwear because God doesn't like to glimspe penises up men's robes. Does that sound like a man or a God speaking there?
2007-01-12 08:10:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 3⤋
Romans 1:26-27 "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. EVEN THEIR WOMEN exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion."
In Sodom and Gomorrah it was only the men being perverse.
In Genesis 19:1-29 the cities of Sodom and Gommorah were destroyed because the people were so wicked. The men of the city wanted to have sex with other men. So God's judgement on the city was to destroy it by raining down burning sulfur on Sodom and Gomorrah.
2007-01-12 08:10:48 · answer #2 · answered by cnm 4 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Because the story was written, not to condemn homosexuality, but to condemn the things not done which were most highly valued in that time and culture: i.e. procreation, the concept of male superiority, and hospitality. Women weren't really more than objects to own, etc. at that time. Nobody worried too much what they did behind closed doors, so long as they didn't get in the man's way and did what they were told.
_()_
2007-01-12 08:14:10 · answer #3 · answered by vinslave 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are a few instances where women are mentioned. Usually because they did something out of the ordinary. Or perhaps because they stood for God in a mighty way.
Sodom and Gomorrah was a wicked place and therefore all who lived there (except for Lot, his wife and daughters) were destroyed. (His wife was later turned into a pillar of salt.)
In the Holy Bible (OT and NT) sexual sin is mentioned often...and it does refer to women as well.
Check it out!
2007-01-12 08:14:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
the bible doesn't record the birth of women. Rarely were women mentioned in the bible. Maybe they didn't have a prominent part in homosexual activities. But they were immoral and adulteress.
Why do I think that? Because they all died to.
Some say why did the children die? Who was going to care for millions of orphaned children. It was a kindness on God's part to let them die. But they can come back in a resurrection during the judgment day.
2007-01-12 08:14:14 · answer #5 · answered by Steven 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sodom and Gomorrah were not the island of Lesbos, and who doesn't like lesbians?
2007-01-12 08:11:16 · answer #6 · answered by ivorytowerboy 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Have you ever considered a diet? Seriously - looking at your 360 page I had to use two monitors!!
2007-01-12 08:26:19 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Easy.
Two men who have sex with each other are two men who are not impregnating women with future farmers/soldiers.
Women, whatever else they do, are still owned by their respective husbands who have sex with them, so there's no damage to the population size.
2007-01-12 08:12:36 · answer #8 · answered by eldad9 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
There was no law at this time.
The bible God had yet to give any type of rules.
DIDN'T STOP HIM FROM COMMITING MASS MURDER!!!
No law until Moses
2007-01-12 08:13:29 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
the bible was written by men, so what do you expect??
2007-01-12 08:11:28 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 2⤋