Or groom taking bride's last name...
2007-01-12 07:19:40 · 6 answers · asked by 1982 3 in Family & Relationships ➔ Weddings
Well as far as I know back when last names were more or less stating your title and the land you owned example: Robin of Locksley haha... so when a man and woman were married she would move to his land and become part of that establishment taking the name of his property.
2007-01-12 08:24:48 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Same way the father gives the bride away. You no longer belong to your family you belong to his.
So funny hw times have changed I bet 90% of married men actually become a member of the brides family instead nowadays. Probably because we women all smartened up and decided that MIL's arent that great and absolutely have nothing on our own moms!
2007-01-12 07:27:17 · answer #2 · answered by kateqd30 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i imagine lots relies upon upon the guidelines of the land. In my section he might want to ought to flow to courtroom and Petition for a legal replace of brand. the position the girl's call transformations 'immediately' on the time of the marriage, that's why the Priest publicizes the Bride's new call, the guy's call does not. I propose looking into the guidelines contained in the section you stay in, yet i'm extraordinarily particular he ought to flow earlier a choose in a lot of this u . s . a ..
2016-12-02 04:22:38 · answer #3 · answered by mrotek 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure but no adays the bride can keep her last name instead.
2007-01-12 07:27:02 · answer #4 · answered by Irish Girl 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was a method for identifying what man the woman belonged to.
At birth, she was given her father's last name. Then, when her father "gave her away" to another man, she'd be given her husband's last name.
2007-01-12 08:17:05 · answer #5 · answered by abfabmom1 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because women are property!
It might sound funny now, but a long time ago this was SERIOUS BUSINESS.
2007-01-12 07:24:50 · answer #6 · answered by John C 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋