In California, the issuing agency would have to have prior written permission from the property owner before enforcing traffic laws.
For example, if a shopping mall has problems with people blowing through signs, they would send a letter to the PD requesting enforcement. After that, its open season.
2007-01-12 07:18:10
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answer #1
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answered by M_MEEKER 2
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Maybe, maybe not. Some of the stop signs on the parking lot are really on the street, IE those that stop people when they access the street.
Also some of the stop signs may have been issued by the city or state, those should be enforceable.
Now those on the stores property, that don't conform the the DOT standard, probably are not enforceable.
But really how long does it take to stop and be safe, or prevent an accident? If you have an accident and someone blew through a stop sign, even if it not enforceable, what's the person's defense? The store consider it a risk, and gave warring and the driver chose to ignore it. How would you like to explain that in front of a judge? Or to the parents of the child who die?
2007-01-12 16:02:10
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answer #2
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answered by Richard 7
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As ever, the answer is "depends upon your jurisdiction." Probably, California law is similar to those elsewhere, however. M_meeker is close on that. Cal. Vehicle Code section 21107.6 provides that a local county or city can pass an ordinance stating that certain private roads are generally open to the public to serve commercial establishments. Upon the passage of such an ordinance (not just a letter from somebody), the state vehicle code becomes enforceable on that private road. They do not have to have the property owner's permission to do this, but the property owner can override it by posting a sign saying that the private road is not subject to public traffic laws.
You ought to stop at the stop sign, anyway, to avoid an accident, and unless you are absolutely sure that there is no such ordinance, you could get a ticket for not stopping as well.
2007-01-12 16:33:29
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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They would come under such charges as DUI, Wreckless driving etc etc. which are chargable offense's in court while on private property. They would not be a charge brought into court by itself unless the town, village, city would have included the sign in its local ordinances. If they did you could recieve a citation for it.
This does not include any charges brought in a civil trial.
2007-01-12 15:11:16
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answer #4
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answered by KIB 4
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i was in a car accident in a parking lot due to someone failing to yield the right away i was told no one can be charged for an accident in a parking lot because it is private property but you can still be issued a parking ticket or failure to yeild, speeding ticket so i guess it depends on which person decideds to play big cop and if your their or not.
2007-01-12 15:17:45
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answer #5
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answered by uswitchesthree 3
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The stop signs are enforceable people use own knowledge whether to stop or not. there are security guards at every mall and if they are caught then they will receive a ticket.
2007-01-12 15:08:12
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answer #6
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answered by JoJoBa 6
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No. Just as the crosswalks at Walmart are enforceable, so are the stop signs.
2007-01-12 15:06:56
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answer #7
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answered by Goose&Tonic 6
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stop signs are enforcable any palce in public. parking lots included.
2007-01-12 15:07:37
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answer #8
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answered by Heather F 2
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Yep, because its private property.
2007-01-12 15:06:42
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answer #9
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answered by Fire_God_69 5
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don't know
2007-01-12 15:07:58
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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